They're just words in a book, they don't prove anything.

The only thing it proves is that John thought that Christ was God.

god is jesus and the holy spirit it called the trinity duh!

No it doesn't because if you read verse 2 it says that the Word who is Jesus was WITH God,showing that God and Jesus are separate, then in verse 14 it brings out that the Word (Jesus) became flesh and resided among us and we saw his glory, a glory such as belongs to an only begotten son FROM A FATHER, again showing that they are separate beings, Jehovah (Psalm 83:18) is Almighty God And Jesus is his only begotten son.

I am not a JW but here are a few thoughts for you to consider. Why not give Christ’s words in the Gospels greater authority than anybody else’s in the NT. Jesus used the phrases “your God and my God”. The God that he prayed to is the God that everybody should pray to. It is the God that Adam, Noah, Abraham and Moses prayed to and the one that all Muslims pray to. Jesus explained the unity of God in the simplest and clearest of terms by saying “The Lord our God is one Lord”. Yet there are many who insist on twisting Christ’s message into something meaningless like, “The Lord our God is made up of three persons, the Father, the only begotten Son of God and the Holy Ghost. I am the only begotten son of God. I am God”. You might like to distance yourself from those who have so grossly misrepresented Christ. The Last Testament or, to give it its formal name, the Holy Qur’an (HQ) puts it more strongly. It says in HQ 4:171, using the word Allah for the universal God of all, “The Messiah, Jesus son of Mary, was only a MESSENGER of Allah, and His WORD which He conveyed unto Mary, and a SPIRIT from Him. So believe in Allah and His messengers, and SAY NOT "THREE". CEASE! (it is) better for you! ALLAH IS ONLY ONE GOD. Far is it removed from His Transcendent Majesty that he should have a son. His is all that is in the heavens and all that is in the earth.” Translated by Mr Pickthall from the original text of the Holy Qur’an.

I wrote a nice long reply but for some reason it never posted. John 1:1 actually proves that Jesus is a separate god. Notice it says the Word was with (more accurately "towards or facing") THE GOD (ho theos) and that (theos) was the Word. Can you be the God and be facing The God at the same time? How about the fact that the second occurance of God (theos) is not definite as the first occurance is? I know you may not understand this grammar stuff but it makes a big difference in this text. We can discuss this further if you like but I want you to think about something. If God is the Trinity, and Jesus is God, Then Jesus is the Trinity. Or else you are equivocating (giving a word two meanings) when you say "God". This is the main flaw of the Trinity. We never see God as being multipersonal nor do we see anyone other than the Father being called Almighty or the True God.

Jehovah’s Witness’ translate John 1:1-2 as: “1 In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god. 2 This one was in [the] beginning with God.” Greek linguistics come into play here and it is something most of us find to be a real chore, so let me try and clarify the translation. The translation “a god”, comes from the Greek word theos which can mean God or a god depending on sentence structure. In the case of the later part of John 1:1, theos is a singular predicate noun occurring before the verb and is not preceded by the definite article. Lets break it down a little. In Greek linguistics, nouns that occur with out a definite article are called anarthrous (from the Greek anarthros meaning not articulated or lacking joints). In the case of “was a god” theos is anarthrous but in passage before that, “and the Word was with God “theos is preceded by the definite article O (ho). What’s the difference? Articular construction of the noun point to an identity, a personality, whereas a singular anarthrous predicate noun preceding the verb point to a quality about someone. In other words, John’s statement that the Word was “a god” does not mean that he was the God with whom he was. It merely expresses a certain quality about the Word but does not identify him as one and the same as God himself. There are many places the bible where a singular anarthrous predicate noun preceding the verb occur and are translated correctly (Mark 6:49, 11:32/ John 4:19 6:70 to mention a few) The actual translation for the end of John 1:1 reads something like, "and a god was the Word." So in John 1:1-2, we have clarification that they are two separate entities and not one person. To get a clear understanding on why Jehovah’s Witnesses don’t believe in the Trinity, read their article about it. It’s probably a lot easier than getting in to Greek, Hebrew and Aramaic linguistics. http://www.watchtower.org/e/ti/index.htm --- Predicate Noun: A predicate noun is a noun (or noun phrase) that is used to predicate a description or identification of the subject. For example: He is a good man. He became a journalist. Definite Article: a determiner ( the in English) that introduces a noun phrase and implies that the thing mentioned has already been mentioned, or is common knowledge, or is about to be defined (as in the book on the table; the art of government; the famous poet and short story writer).