It's re-branding, re-marketing of a old concept to make it fit into the different philosophy of the New Testament.

Perhaps Jesus did it in a conscious parallel to the earlier event. Many events in the Bible forshadow later events. It's how we know the various parts are inspired by the same Person.

I do not read it as yu do. sorry.

In 626 AD the scribe that copied the text was paid by the word and he added this as filler, now you know, the rest of the story

The bible is Gods word.Jesus is the God of the old testament too.Read John 1:1,Jesus has always been.Your question makes no since.

I disagree. Both the Old and New Testaments are inspired by God. The New Testament stories about the "Feeding of the Multitude" may have been prophecied by 2 Kings but it was based on eyewitness reports by people who were there. And the thousands of witnesses to these miracles had decades to protest them being false before and after they were finally written down in the Gospels. With love in Chist.

The "Feeding of the Multitude" stems from the story in 2 Kings; however, in Mark (the first written gospel) there are 2 feeding stories and they both serve a separate purpose. In the first story, "shepherd" imagery is used to link the Marcan Jesus to the acts of the prophets, which is a common theme of the Book of Mark. Jesus is mentioned as a "shepherd" and the people are "lost sheep". The people are asked to sit on "green grass" like a shepherd would take his sheep to eat and drink on. Some have suggested that the shepherd imagery is to suggest a correlation to King David in the Old Testament, and where that may be true in the Book of Matthew, where the correlation of Jesus as a "king" and from the bloodline of David is important; it seems more likely to fit into the theme of the prophetic acts of Jesus that Mark is displaying (that he is "like" Elijah, but wholely different). The second story serves a similar purpose; however, it's more likely an attempt to push the character of Jesus beyond the realm of "prophet" since he is labeled in the first chapter of Mark as both "Christ" and "Son of God". In the future, before giving answers, I would suggest that you guys actually do a little background work and not just say "ur question makes no sense cuz God inspired it and Jesus is God" or that it was just a scribe's whimsy. Both of those answers are foolish (and the scribe one is incorrect...and to be a bit of a heretic, so is the "Jesus/God" one.) EDIT: Also, just because a passage in the New Testament is inspired by a passage in the Old Testament (or even *gasp* the modern literary works of the day as Paul commonly did) does not mean that God did not play a part in the writing of the work. A LOT of the work in the New Testament is illusionary to the Old Testament and a lot of the work of the Old Testament is illusionary to other writings of the Ancient-Near East or even more commonly other Pseudopigraphal/Apocraphal works. That doesn't make it not as "inspired".