Everything I've read says "candidates for Mirena have had at least one child" but nothing tells me if a woman who has NOT had a child can use Mirena. I just want to know if this is possible/legal. I'm 26 and in a monogamous relationship.Thanks!
by 
ocrasaroon
ANSWERS: 4
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That is a good question. My doctors' assistant told me that they (that specific practice) would not do the Mirena because of the slim chance that a woman would permenantly not be able to have children and I haven't had any yet, so that is my guess to why they want a woman to have had children in case something would go wrong.
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I wanted to know the same thing, and it seems, after doing a lot of "web-searching," the primary reason sited by logical people is because women who have had a child are less likely to have the uterus expel the IUD. It's not so much about "changing your mind" because one of the features of Mirena is that if you change your mind, you simply have it removed, and your cycles kick back in again. According to the literature on the website, your chances of becoming pregnant at that point are the same as if you weren't using any contraception at all. Hope this helps! =)
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I haven't had a child. (Should hope not at 18.) I have Mirena and am quite happy with it so far, it's been nearly half a year.
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they let my friend who hasnt had any children yet have it put in....
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