I am not an expert, but I have in front ot me the Koine Greek/english NT, a grammatical analysis, and an interlinear Greek English online analysis. The Greek for 1 Cor 1:15 is: 15ος εστιν εικων του θεου του αορατου πρωτοτοκος πασης κτισεως The word you are looking for is πρωτοτοκος (prototokos). The interlinear gives this literal translation: 1:15 os hos pr Nom Sg m (WHO) estin eimi (IS) vi Pres vxx 3 Sg eikwn eikOn (IMAGE) n_ Nom Sg f tou ho (OF-THE) t_ Gen Sg m qeou theos (GOD) n_ Gen Sg m tou ho (THE) t_ Gen Sg m aoratou aoratos (UNSEEN) a_ Gen Sg m prwtotokos prOtotokos (BEFORE-most-BROUGHT-FORTH; FIRSTBORN) a_ Nom Sg m pashs pas (OF-EVERY) a_ Gen Sg f ktisews ktisis (CREATION) n_ Gen Sg f I am wondering if you have been challenged by Jehovah's witness teaching, especially by their NEw World Paraphrase (I do not use Translation as it is not), which adds "Other" before the word 'Creation" in English. As you can see, first of all, the word "other" is not there in the Greek and is added wherever the JWs want to "prove" that Jesus is created. The Greek does not back this belief. Now let us look at the word prwtotokos- you can see the word proto in there. We have taken it into English in words such as prototype (the first of its kind). And it does, indeed mean "before" or less literally "first". the "tokos" means "born", hence the translation "firstborn". But what does "Firstborn" mean? Certainly, it does, in most cases, mean the one who was "born first", but not always. In the Old Testament, Isaac is Abraham's firstborn, Jacob is Isaac's firstborn. That is why they are buried together. But wait! Wasn't Ishmael born before Isaac, and Esau before Jacob? Yes. But neither was firstborn. The firstborn, represented in New Testament Greek (Koine) by prwtotokos is the one who is pre-eminent or has the right to inherit and rule. This is the point that Paul is making in this passage: that Jesus is the pre-eminent ruler, heir over all creation, not that he was created or born first, then everything else was born. See in context, this becomes very clear: 15He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. 16For by him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things were created by him and for him. 17He is before all things, and in him all things hold together. 18And he is the head of the body, the church; he is the beginning and the firstborn from among the dead, so that in everything he might have the supremacy. 19For God was pleased to have all his fullness dwell in him, 20and through him to reconcile to himself all things, whether things on earth or things in heaven, by making peace through his blood, shed on the cross. ============= There is no consideration of him being a secondary creature in this passage:by Jesus all things were created, and He rules everything. He takes precedence, is pre-eminent over the dead (over death; He rules that too). The JW's mutiliate this passage by repeated insertion of "other" before descriptions of Jesus' power. The word "other" is not there. Jesus rules over it all- and if He does, He must be divine, not created, because God shares His glory with no one. I hope I have explained this okay. If you have any other questions, please ask. Blessings

Here is what I could find on that scripture so that you can get another perspective on it. I don't know Greek very well but I do like when I get a chance to research it. Col. 1:15, 16, RS: “He [Jesus Christ] is the image of the invisible God, the first-born of all creation; for in him all things were created, in heaven and on earth.” In what sense is Jesus Christ “the first-born of all creation”? (1) Trinitarians say that “first-born” here means prime, most excellent, most distinguished; thus Christ would be understood to be, not part of creation, but the most distinguished in relation to those who were created. If that is so, and if the Trinity doctrine is true, why are the Father and the holy spirit not also said to be the firstborn of all creation? But the Bible applies this expression only to the Son. According to the customary meaning of “firstborn,” it indicates that Jesus is the eldest in Jehovah’s family of sons. (2) Before Colossians 1:15, the expression “the firstborn of” occurs upwards of 30 times in the Bible, and in each instance that it is applied to living creatures the same meaning applies—the firstborn is part of the group. “The firstborn of Israel” is one of the sons of Israel; “the firstborn of Pharaoh” is one of Pharaoh’s family; “the firstborn of beast” are themselves animals. What, then, causes some to ascribe a different meaning to it at Colossians 1:15? Is it Bible usage or is it a belief to which they already hold and for which they seek proof? (3) Does Colossians 1:16, 17 (RS) exclude Jesus from having been created, when it says “in him all things were created . . . all things were created through him and for him”? The Greek word here rendered “all things” is pan′ta, an inflected form of pas. At Luke 13:2, RS renders this “all . . . other”; JB reads “any other”; NE says “anyone else.” (See also Luke 21:29 in NE and Philippians 2:21 in JB.) In harmony with everything else that the Bible says regarding the Son, NW assigns the same meaning to pan′ta at Colossians 1:16, 17 so that it reads, in part, “by means of him all other things were created . . . All other things have been created through him and for him.” Thus he is shown to be a created being, part of the creation produced by God.