by Mirage V2.0 AWOL on November 29th, 2007

Mirage V2.0 AWOL

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Is a country that has signed the Geneva Convention obliged to honor that treaty with rogue groups or non-signatories? This is not a moral question, but a legal one.

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  • by Anonymous on November 29th, 2007

    Anonymous

    There is certainly a debate on this topic, but the slim majority view seems to be that the answer is yes to non-signatories, and no to rogue groups. Normally, a treaty only binds one signatory to others. However, the language of the treaty seems to place a duty on a signatory to treat all governments under its terms. However, its terms also suggests that it is only applicable to established governments.

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  • by Anonymous on September 3rd, 2008

    Anonymous

    Article 1 of the Geneva Conventions states:
    "War crimes are against the customary laws of war which are applicable in any conflict, regardless of whether the country in question is a signatory to the Geneva Convention."

    The Conventions were created to describe actions in war that are unacceptable. Each member (signatory) has agreed upon actions that are unacceptable, and each member has agreed not to engage in them. It is not dependent on what any enemy does, or what kind of war it is, or whether the enemy is a member of the Geneva Conventions.

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  • by Anonymous on July 26th, 2008

    Anonymous

    Most countries are suppose to follow International Law, and recognize it depending on the situation and the classing of your country.

    When your own country refuses to deal with basic Human Rights issues, it spills over into the boarders of other countries, and threatens to push your country into Third World Status.

    A very serious matter for Western countries, who are trying to keep their pristine image.

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