Based on your understanding of Christian theology, is the practice of communion by intinction liturgically correct?
by 
Shopping Sheryl - home from the hospital
ANSWERS: 6
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Sheryl, I was not familiar with this term, but I now recognize what you mean by it and am familiar with the practice of dipping. As a Protestant and a Baptist, we generally give people a small cup of grape juice and a tiny piece of bread and they partake of both. Sometimes, we will dip in a common cup in my church, but this is usually up to the church itself and specifically to the pastor as to how he decides to administer the Lord's Supper. My theological stance as a Baptist Christian is that communion is a symbolic act of remembering the shed blood and broken body of Jesus and fellowshipping with him and one another in prayer in the process. We are not overly concerned with doing it a certain way every time but that the meaning be preserved. There is always a cup and always bread, but believers may perform this remembrance with a variety of forms. This is true of most Evangelical theology I believe though some churches within our theological family have stricter rules for participation and form. I hope that helps.
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Intinction simply introduces both elements at the same time. It is liturgically correct in both traditional and reformed branches of Christianity.
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Not if your theology is bible based. Jesus distinctly said He gave the bread and fruit of the vine separate. Each are symbolic of different parts of Himself... one which is food for life and the other which represents His wrath. Great question, by the way. I'll be watching to see what other responses you will get.
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Yes. In the Lutheran tradition, the body and blood of Jesus is 'in, with and under' the bread and wine. Even in the Catholic tradition, you receive the body and blood both in the bread because the is no body seperate from the blood. I think there is a certain obligation to have communion as close to the origional as possible, in relation to the phrase to 'do this in rememberance of me'. I have had some people argue that Coke and a Ritz cracker are allowed to be used in communion. The argument is that Jesus used a common drink and food in his time, to show that the common can be used in an uncommon way. In the same way, what could be refered to as the profane, could be used in a sacred way.
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What does that mean?
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