- NEW!
Help answer this question below.
It depends on what type of employee you are (contract, casual, union etc) If you are "Exempt" or not, salaried or hourly etc. It sounds like you are hourly. Unless you are on an alternative work schedule, I think that, yes, the remaining hours beyond 40 will be OT.
I hope the info below helps you.
Look here:
From: http://www.workforcesoftware.com/resources/ca_laws.html
California Labor Laws
Among the states, California has uniquely stringent labor laws. The following page summarizes some of those laws, and shows how WorkForce Software is able to deal with complex regulations.
Overtime Laws
For more than 8 hours in a day, an employee must be paid 1.5 times his or her usual rate, and for over 12 hours in a day must be paid twice the standard rate. In addition, if an employee works 7 consecutive days, they must be paid 1.5 times the usual rate for the first 8 hours, and doubletime for any hours over 8. The 7th consecutive day law applies regardless of how many hours an employee worked in the preceding six days. Also, any hours over 40 in a week must be paid at time and a half.
Overtime Exempt Employees
Certain employees are exempt from overtime laws, including those that spend at least 50% of their working time performing work that is primarily intellectual, managerial, or creative, and requires the exercise of discretion and independent judgment. For more guidelines on exempt and non-exempt employees, please see What is an Exempt Employee?.
Alternative Work Schedules
If two-thirds of the workforce agrees on an alternative work schedule (as decided by a secret ballot election), then a schedule may be implemented of up to 10 hours in a day, but no more than 40 hours per week. If an employee cannot work the alternative schedule, however, the employer is required to make a reasonable effort to accommodate the employee.
If an employee submits a written request to work between 8 and 10 hours per day, then that schedule may be implemented.
Ok. So in 4 days, you worked 40 hours, 8 of which are overtime. That means you worked 32 "regular" hours. Friday's 8 hours would be considered "regular" hours, not overtime, because you have not yet exceeded the 40 regular hours that week, nor have you already worked 8 hours that day.
If you were to work 8 hours friday, and then go into work on Saturday - any time worked on saturday would be overtime because you would have already hit 40 regular hours that week.
Does that make sense?
Any hours you worked over 40 hours is considered over time and you should be paid at least time and a half. That is unless you have a contractual employment with the company. For example, you are getting paid 'X' to do your job no matter how many or few hours it takes.
Assuming you worked ten hours a day from Mon-Thurs, you would be entitled to 40 hours of regular time and 8 hours of overtime.
There seems to be some confusion about whether Friday was regular time or overtime. Technically it would be regular time. You earned 2 hours of overtime for each day from Mon-Thurs. However, the semantics does not matter. You are entitled to OT for every hour over 8 in a day or 40 in a week. You cannot get duplicate OT (e.g. 2 hours of OT each day, plus OT for Friday because that was over 40 in a week).
Sorry - duplicate.
Under California Wage & Hour Laws, it should be counted towards overtime because it is over 40 hours a week. All hours over 8 hours a day or 40 hours a week a paid at the overtime rate.
I'm unsure how you got 8 hours of overtime with only working 40 hours. Overtime is calculated as any time over 40 hours in one pay week. Some companies may offer their own form of compensating for time worked outside of the scheduled shift.
Legally speaking, if 40 hours were accrued between Monday and Thursday, and an additional 8 hours were worked that Friday, you will awarded 8 hours of overtime. Essentially, you will be paid of 52 hours of work at regular pay.
However, if you are on salary, OT is nonexistent for you, unless the company has a different policy. They are not required to by law, though.
Additionally, some companies will only give overtime pay when working over 80 hours in two weeks. Bi-weekly pay does not always follow the same principles of weekly pay.
Daughter was sexually assaulted at school by one of her peers and principle and superintendant are offering no help. Who can I contact?
by Jorta85 on September 29th, 2010
| 1 person likes this
since the california state constitution guarantees residents the right to fish do you need a fishing license?
by bighorn54 on August 8th, 2010
| 1 person likes this
I have my permit and I'm 16, what do I do next after six months?
by NAASQ on December 10th, 2010
| 1 person likes this
i heard theres a law in california thats says if somebodys belongings are in somebody elses residents they technically live there. true?
by feverrock1 on August 23rd, 2010
| 1 person likes this
Does a motorcoach need to be SPAB certified to transfer students from the airport to their school? (returning from an out of state trip)
by trrbus on October 4th, 2010
| 1 person likes this
You're reading Hello, I have a question in regards to overtime pay and an odd work week. If an employee work say 40 hours from Mon-Thur, collecting 8 hours of overtime pay, then works Friday for 8 hours, should that be counted as overtime pay or regular time pay?
Comments
Paragraphs 4,5,6, and 7 are COPYRIGHT VIOLATIONS. I appreciate the link, but please remove my content from your page!
by spectrumjobs on December 1st, 2007
That is something you would have to take up with Answerbag, not me. Feel free to flag the answer and take up copright law with them. I cited my source and I used it for educational purposes. I did not gain anything from it nor did it cause a loss to you.
by This Daley has a new bundle of joy on December 1st, 2007
This Daley: Just so you know, if this is copyright infringement, you would be personally liable and the owner could get statutory damages. The fact that you did not gain anything or the copyright owner did not lose anything is irrelevant to liability. Also, the fact that you cite your source does not relieve a person from infringement. Although, I do believe your use would qualify as "fair use" in this instance, you should just be aware of this for the future. I wouldn't want you to get sued and be forced to pay $750 - $150,000 (statutory damages) for something you did not realize was illegal.
by Anonymous on January 27th, 2008
....
by Anonymous on January 27th, 2008
Spectrum Jobs: Answerbag does have a duty to remove infringing content once it has come to their attention if they want to avoid liability. Since the poster does not want to remove it, you may want to inform AB. However, the poster did give you some free advertising and good will, which you have destroyed by posting your comment. Even if you are in the right, you may want to consider the marketing aspects of your decisions in the future.
by Anonymous on January 27th, 2008
Anonymous, if you click on SpectrumJobs you will see that he or she registered on Dec 1st and has not been seen since Dec 5th. I feel very comfortable that this falls under Fair Use. In addition to which, Answerbag has a system and process SpectrumJobs could have used to clear this issue up and, based on the fact the answer is still here,he/she either has not done so, or has been proven wrong in his or her claim. I will stand by my answer until otherwise directed. Thanks for your concern, but I am fairly aware of copyright law and what it entails. I believe this is falls under Fair Use.
by This Daley has a new bundle of joy on January 28th, 2008