by ViceGrip on November 18th, 2006

ViceGrip

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How can it be that in Isa 44:24 Jehovah says "I, Jehovah, am stretching out the heavens BY MYSELF, laying out the earth" Yet in Heb 1:10 Jesus laid the foundations of the earth itself, and the heavens are the works of His hands?

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  • by franziska von awesome -ex neko- on May 8th, 2007

    franziska von awesome -ex neko-

    Why would he say "I am" rather than "I was"?

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    • Why would they try and stone Him for saying "I was"?

      ViceGrip

      by ViceGrip on May 8th, 2007

    • Sorry, I replied to wrong question. Thought you were trying to defend Jesus saying "I have been" in the NWT, because it couldn't be more erroneous! As far as this question/answer goes, this quote was taken out of the poorly translated NWT and that is why it says "I, Jehovah, am". Any other translation will say I am the Lord, who has made all things. Their bible is blasphemy to the Word of God! They attempt to change who Jesus is, and they change God's word, to fit their own belief.

      ViceGrip

      by ViceGrip on May 8th, 2007

    • I'm Catholic, not JW. I was under the impression that the original question was a JW asking other JWs what this meant. I know the NWT is a made-up translation, ^_~. I'm a little confused here... I think I'll just leave.

      franziska von awesome -ex neko-

      by franziska von awesome -ex neko- on May 8th, 2007

    • They might try to stone him for saying he existed before Abraham as they always thought that when he said things like he was God's son that he was saying he was God. He often had to defend himself against their logic. (John 10:36; John 5:18) http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John10:34-38;%20John5:17-19;%20Exodus3:14;&version=47;45;31;49;51;
      Never saw a translation with "I, Jehovah, am". http://www.watchtower.org/e/bible/index.htm

      Texasescimo

      by Texasescimo on July 22nd, 2009

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