When a man is on first and a ground ball is hit, why does the fielder automatically throw to first base instead of to second base?
by 
jtolb65
ANSWERS: 5
-
Not entirely sure what you mean about 'automatically throwing to first base'.. this isn't the case at all. The fielder has to assess the risk of attempting to throw the runner out at second. If a ground ball is hit to the infield there will almost always be a double-play attempt at second base. On the other hand, an outfield ground ball often takes long enough to field that the runner from first will make it to second. The runner that is on first base also usually gets a lead-off and can disrupt a play at second by sliding into the second baseman. The hitter gets no lead-off, allowing much more time for the easier force play at first base.
-
he doesnt he throws it to second to get the double play
-
The only time this situation would occur is if there are two outs and a relatively slow batter. Since the runner at first has a lead it is easier to go to first to get the third out. However, this is by no means an "automatic" play. If there is a slow runner on first and the ball is hit to F4 or F6 who are close to second base then the play will likely be to second rather then first.
-
he would only do that if there are two outs, and it's the closest out. otherwise, he should try to go for the double play, unless it's too late to get the runner at second. you always try to go for the sure out.
-
He might do that if there is 2 outs.
maddock RELATED QUESTIONS
Copyright 2023, Wired Ivy, LLC