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by Anonymous on November 21st, 2009

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My father left a percentage of his house to me in his will, once it sold. Now that the house has sold, my step-mother told me that I am not entitled to anything b/c the deed says "husband and wife" Is this possible?

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Answers. 2 helpful answers below.

  • by WatchYouSee on March 29th, 2010

    WatchYouSee

    Actually no it is not possible, if he says something in his will then it is definite.

    its his will, meaning everything in there is definite. So if he mentions ( to my wife i leave you 99.9.9% of the house and to my daughter i leave you 0.0.1% of the house.

    then no matter what happens you get exactly 0.0.1% of whatever the house sold for.

    If she refuses get a lawyer, not for the money. But because a will is definite. Imagine you die tommorow and you leave a will stating your old boyfriend gets the dog, and your sister takes it from him, you would be outraged if you were alive. Respect the will. Seriously. Although its probally just because im a atheist i say that you should respect it because its our last possible words to leave behind.

    please fight teeth to nail for this percentage, for your father

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  • by level headed on November 21st, 2009

    level headed

    If it's in the will then yes you are entitled. The deed only lists the owner of the house and has nothing to do with what's in the will.

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