by 
Atlas
ANSWERS: 1
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Russel's paradox defines a set which contains all and only those sets which do not contain themselves. Does it contain itself? If it does, then it doesn't match its own definition, because it should only contain sets that don't contain themselves. If it does not contain itself, then why doesn't it, because it's supposed to contain sets that do not contain themselves. The paradox happens because at this time, the rules that defined sets allowed the paradox to occur. The rules must have been wrong. They are now adjusted to disallow set constructions that would have a set containing sets of the same type. So it is no longer possible to create a valid set defining statement that talks about sets containing themselves.
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