- NEW!
by olan black on November 14th, 2009
Not at all, in most cases, the law doesn't have to be explained, or the person does not have to be notified. perfect example. if your drivers license is revoked, the DMV does not have to notify you, but if the police stop you, you can be charged with driving with a suspended license. to that point, you have no way of knowing, and it just favors the state, because they can collect fines
What constitutes slander. Liabel
by daler on October 18th, 2010
| 1 person likes this
if a PDF for a publication does not exist can I make my own by scanning a hard copy of the original?
by rsawyer4 on December 31st, 2010
| 1 person likes this
If you see a person that is seriously injured, behind a fence that says KEEP OUT.. do you jump over the fence to help him?
by XxXJayDXxX on January 23rd, 2011
| 1 person likes this
can i post ex wife pictures she posed for willing \i asking for a legal op ion not a moral
by prissymarie on February 18th, 2011
| 1 person likes this
Does the US have such a law as hate speech? How is it defined if it exists? I'm Alec pointed out to me that yelling fire in a crowded
by DA BEN DAN yanggui zi on October 28th, 2010
| 2 people like this
You're reading Do you feel it is justice that the law considers "ignorance of the law is no excuse " when a law is broken without Intention?
Your favorite Q&A site is on Facebook! Become a fan to connect with the ever-growing community of Answerbaggers, share your thoughts and find out what Answerbag's up to next!
Comments
Thank you
by PrairieWind on November 14th, 2009