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Help answer this question below.
I had a blind friend who claimed she dreamed in colors.
Beyond that, there is no proving it except from a the point of view of physics.
This is actually close to a thought experiment in epistemology. A blind person can have a full working knowledge of color, can understand it intellectually, could even be the world's foremost expert on the color spectrum. But if you were to give this person sight, would they then understand something they did not before?
If you think knowledge would be gained in this situation, then it would be logical for you to also say you can not prove the existence of color to the sightless. Personally, I agree, the blind can understand color, but they can't know color like a seeing person can.
Have the blind person ask three different people of her choosing what color something is. When they all give the same answer, that is empirical proof.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Empirical_method
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You're reading How do you prove that colors exist to a blind person? is this possible? bear in mind i said "prove" and not "convince"
Comments
hi, thanks for the answer! i think physics couldnt be used to prove it, since theyd first have to believe its conclusions.. and that would require faith. (sounds strange, "faith in physics" but you know what i mean?) so it would still be "convincing" not so much proving.. +2 anyhooze, thanks again
by insaner on September 8th, 2008
Maybe we could prove the concept of color wince it is a function of frequency. Beyond that, you are correct.
by tomsims on September 8th, 2008
yeah, but even if explained as a frequency, it would still just be "convincing" right? since i could also explain a theoretical concept the same way, but not really proving its existence..
by insaner on September 8th, 2008
True.
by tomsims on September 8th, 2008