Runner at 3rd, 2 outs, and count 3-2. Runner steals home and crosses home plate before the pitch reaches home plate. Pitch is swinging strike 3, does the run count?
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bballscorer
ANSWERS: 5
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This would be a "timing" play. Since the runner touched home before the out took place the run would count.
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Yes, the run would count because he is not on a force play at home, so the batter does not have to reach first base safely. But, it would be very unlikely there would be a SWINGING strike 3 while the runner is stealing home.
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The run does not score unless the runner acquired the plate before the time of the pitch which has nothing to do with when the pitch reaches the plate.
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The runner stealing home and the batter striking out are all part of the same "play." The action is related and not two separate plays. By rule (4.09(a) Exception), no run can score on a play when the third out of the inning is made by the batter-runner before he reaches first base. The fact the runner touched home prior to the pitch reaching the batter does not alter the application of the rule. The situation does not become a "time play" unless/until there is no force play in effect (or any force situation has been removed) and the batter-runner has reached first safely. Since the batter-runner never reached first base safely, it's not a time play. No run scores.
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The only way the run would count on a swininging strike 3 is if the catcher dropped the ball and the batter reached first base.
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