- NEW!
by A shout without knowledge is a protest on November 21st, 2009
I am 99.9% positive that it does not. In fact, as far as I know, if it was his before the marriage, you would even have trouble getting it taken into account during a divorce.
Were that not the case, I could just buy an expensive house, marry a woman when I couldn't aford it, and then divorce her at the specified period of time and she would have to help pay it off.
Can somebody rent out a house about to go into foreclosure in Michigan? I went through a rental agency as well.
by snuggle41 on May 27th, 2011
| 1 person likes this
I just received a parking ticket for parking in the handicap spaces in our apartment complex that we had permission to use. What do I do?
by elizlogan on June 26th, 2011
| 1 person likes this
We have someone staying with us. Not the best situation. Came here with hardly any warning. We are giving him 3 nights and 3 nights only.
by michelleelise444 on September 12th, 2011
| 2 people like this
If a person has not paid taxes for ten years or more do they lose the home to person who did?
by Hazecat on April 12th, 2011
| 1 person likes this
Should it be legal to kill a man for flirting with your wife, provided he's given fair warning in the form of the question "do you want to
by Have A Nice Day on August 15th, 2011
| 2 people like this
You're reading Does a mortgage by husband before the marriage become wife's burden if married less than a year in California?
Your favorite Q&A site is on Facebook! Become a fan to connect with the ever-growing community of Answerbaggers, share your thoughts and find out what Answerbag's up to next!
Comments