by RMacin26 on March 16th, 2007

RMacin26

Question

Help answer this question below.

With the bases loaded and 2 outs, the batter hits a pop fly to the infield, which drops in for a hit. The batter safely reaches first base, the runner at third had crossed the plate, but the runner from 1st was forced out at 2nd base, does the run count?

  • Like
  • Report

Answers. 8 helpful answers below.

  • by audiogal on March 16th, 2007

    audiogal

    No, everyone has to advance safely for the run to count. If there was no force out but one of the runners was thrown out, as long as the runner at 3rd crosses home plate before the out, the run would count.

    • Like
    • Report

    No comments. Post one | Permalink

  • by ANGRY SWAN on September 7th, 2007

    ANGRY SWAN

    If the runner at first is forced at second, then it wasn't a hit. The third out is made and no runs count.

    • Like
    • Report

    No comments. Post one | Permalink

  • by Clint on June 26th, 2008

    Clint

    Run does not count! Force out is in effect no matter. And the runner was forced out at 2nd base. Why did the runner get to second so slowly??

    No comments. Post one | Permalink

  • by CBO on June 2nd, 2008

    CBO

    No

    No comments. Post one | Permalink

  • by BBALL33 on May 22nd, 2008

    BBALL33

    the only way the run counts is if the runner from third base crossed the plate before the out was called at second base.

  • by Im going hoooome on September 7th, 2007

    Im going hoooome

    The correct answer is: No. It was a force play.

    Taken from MLB official rules:

    A FORCE PLAY is a play in which a runner legally loses his right to occupy a base by reason of the batter becoming a runner. Confusion regarding this play is removed by remembering that frequently the "force" situation is removed during the play. Example: Man on first, one out, ball hit sharply to first baseman who touches the bag and batter runner is out. The force is removed at that moment and runner advancing to second must be tagged. If there had been a runner on third or second, and either of these runners scored before the tag out at second, the run counts. Had the first baseman thrown to second and the ball then had been returned to first, the play at second was a force out, making two outs, and the return throw to first ahead of the runner would have made three outs. In that case, no run would score. Example: Not a force out. One out. Runner on first and third. Batter flies out. Two out. Runner on third tags up and scores. Runner on first tries to retouch before throw from fielder reaches first baseman, but does not get back in time and is out. Three outs. If, in umpire's judgment, the runner from third touched home before the ball was held at first base, the run counts

    No comments. Post one | Permalink

  • by Skoop on April 23rd, 2008

    Skoop

    Absolutely NOT. RUN DOES NOT COUNT!! Any third out recorded which is a forced out negates any and all runs that may have already crossed the plate REGARDLESS of the batter safely reaching 1st base. This is baseball 101 folks.

    No comments. Post one | Permalink

  • by DizzyDean on April 15th, 2007

    DizzyDean

    This just happened in my son's game last night, with only one small difference. Bases loaded, two outs, pop fly on the infield and it is not caught. But the runner on second apparently forgot there were two outs, and had only gone halfway. So the third baseman picks up the ball and tags third. Our view: it was a force out and the run does not count even though the runner on third crossed home before the put out at third. The umpire ruled that the run counted because the runner crossed the plate before the put out AND because the put out was made AFTER the batter reached first. Reading the rules of baseball, I don't understand the ruling at all. Under Rule 4.09 the run clearly does not count if the third out is a force out. Under the definition of "Force out," I don't see how this was not. If it wasn't a force out, then how could he even have been out? All I can imagine is that somehow the act of the batter crossing first before the put out at third removed the put out from the definition of a "force out" (does it become two runners one base), but I don't see how. The umpire would/could not explain it.

Want to attach an image to your answer? Click here.

Did this answer your question? If not, then ask a new question or create a poll.

You're reading With the bases loaded and 2 outs, the batter hits a pop fly to the infield, which drops in for a hit. The batter safely reaches first base, the runner at third had crossed the plate, but the runner from 1st was forced out at 2nd base, does the run count?

Follow us on Facebook!

Related Ads

ANSWERBAG BUZZ

Bases loaded and batter hits grounder
Taged out negated force rule
Bases loaded 2 outs drop fly get runner at second does run score
Bases loaded 2 outs outfielder drops fly ball force at 2nd does run count
Bases loaded pop up triple play does run score
Runner on 3rd with 2 outs force out at first base does run count
If a batter hits a pop fly to left field and the bases are loded what should the person on third base do
Force out with 2 outs
Bases loaded two outs runner crosses home before tag
Ab demographic