- NEW!
by Anonymous on October 8th, 2009
First of all, though Ancient Greek language was fairly advanced, I'd say that modern language (especially in a polyglot language like English) is bound to be more technically developed due to time and influences. I think this statement disregards, or at least fails to account for, this idea.
It also seems like a cover for people to rewrite the Bible from the original Greek to make it more suitable. ("Well... if they spoke modern English... they woulda said it like this..." Well, I'm glad you have enough self-esteem to redo the Bible... that must feel good.) :)
Is there a study guide along with"Know the Bible in 30 Days"?
by Answerbag Staff on July 11th, 2010
| 1 person likes this
What year did ronald knox publish the new testament?
by Answerbag Staff on July 6th, 2010
| 1 person likes this
According to the bible.. has God always been honest?
by aldonoir on January 17th, 2012
| 3 people like this
How firm of a grasp do you think you have on scripture, especially relating to end time events?
by drequeen on January 14th, 2012
| 1 person likes this
Who publishes the new King James Bible?
by Answerbag Staff on June 14th, 2010
| 1 person likes this
You're reading How do you interpret this statement from Conservapedia's project to rewrite the Bible: "Christianity introduced powerful new concepts that even the Greek and Hebrew were inadequate to express, but modern conservative language can express well."
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Comments
Agree. It's like saying the Bible says things it doesn't even have the ability to say.
by OZe on October 8th, 2009
I can't understand how someone would believe the Bible is the word of God, and then correct his grammar! That takes some nerve...
by Anonymous on October 8th, 2009