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by Farino on December 13th, 2005
In the New Testament it does refer to men being able to leave his parents but cling onto his wife (singular) and then they become one body, so it's saying that A man and A woman join in holy matrimony and no more.
Also it refers to the necessary qualities of a bishop, one of which is having only one partner. So if the holiest of poeple can only have one partner then surely that is a guide of how the rest of us should live. However before the New Testament it doesn't specifically condemn polygamy.
Ethernium: Whether I agree with the scripture or not is immaterial. I have merely answered the question of what the Bible says on the subject at hand.
How do I add my site to Deliverance Ministries?
by Answerbag Staff on August 16th, 2010
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What is the meaning of Bishop Jugis'coat of arms?
by Answerbag Staff on August 7th, 2010
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by Answerbag Staff on August 2nd, 2010
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why is it ok when woman wears bikini but when muslim woman chooses to practice her religion and cover herself she is labled as oppressed?
by low_profile_princess on February 6th, 2012
| 7 people like this
If someone comes to your door to try and sell their religion to you, do you shut the door in their face or go to the toilet? Or both?
by Kenz the Frenz on February 6th, 2012
| 4 people like this
You're reading Many of the Biblical patriarchs had multiple wives. Does the Bible specifically forbid polygamy?
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Comments
Your first sentence reads more into the original grammar than is actually there, but generally agree.
by Thom64 on December 13th, 2005
That's not just in the New Testament-it was originally in Genesis.But Mosaic law allowed for leeway in marriage.Good answer.
by Anonymous on March 14th, 2006
It also said an overseer or deacon of the church should not go near a dead body... is attending a funeral now sinful? Is context that trivial to you?
by Ethernium on November 4th, 2006
No ban on a (Christian/NT) deacon going near a dead body, that was a Temple Law, from the OT which put one in ritual impurity; those who served could not approach a corpse, see the Man found mugged and robbed on the road to Jericho, the (Temple) priest and levite passed by because they could not do their duty. The Samaritan took care of the injured man, paid for his medical help- moral of the story love of neighbor outweighs ritual regulation!
by barjacob on December 19th, 2006
The man was not dead, so they were able to approach him. It was not a matter of ritual vs. love, but love for all men from all nations, hence the mans identity as a Samaritan was of import. The nation of Israel was to be a tribe of Kings and Priests, with whom for subjects? Was their generosity to be given only to their friends? What they were given free, were they to lord it over those of the nations, and hold them in contempt for not being so fortunate as to receive a free gift as they had? Nice reasoning though, I'd never thought of that approach, but the fact that he was not dead precludes that possibility.
by anonymous on February 18th, 2007
Another question to consider is where in scripture does God condone plural marriage. God demonstrated His intent in marriage when He instituted the first marriage (Adam & Eve). As for marriage to one wife consider this passage from Ephesians 5:31 "For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh." Note that the "two" become "one flesh" not the three or four etc.
by jlmancil on March 13th, 2007