Several parts are inaccurate.
This translation replaces the use of the word LORD with the word JEHOVAH in the New Testament. The New World translators use the Septuagint as one of their justifications. Let me explain.
The Septuagint was a translation of the Hebrew Old Testament into the common Greek spoken when Jesus was on earth, when the Roman Empire existed, etc (2000+ years ago). It was your common Greek translation, if you were alive at that time. And these Greek translators rendered the Hebrew word for Jehovah (adonai) into the Greek word "kurios".
So, henceforth, the New World Translators argue this as justification to do the same in the New Testament. So wherever you see "kurios" (Lord) in the New Testament, it will often be translated not "Lord", but rather as "Jehovah."
All well and good, you might think at first. Except for major inconsistencies:
The Jehovah Witnesses do not believe that Jesus Christ is God manifested in flesh, that He is the Almighty God incarnate, come to us as a babe in a manger. So guess what? In most places where "kurios" (Lord) is uses for Jesus, they will NOT translate it as "Jehovah", although it's the same exact Greek word. Their dogma overrules this consistency of translation.
A great case in point is the conversion of Saul (later known as Paul) on the road to Damascus. Acts 9 records that Saul was struck down by a great light, and he heard a voice from heaven saying, "Saul, Saul, why are you persecuting me?" (Acts 9:4)
Now Saul was a Hebrew of the Hebrews, a Pharisee of great zeal. He would definitely have realized this was God. Immediately asked, "Who are you, Lord?" (Acts 9:5)
Notice that in the New World translation, they translate it "Lord". The same "kurios" that is rendered as "Jehovah" in so many places in the New Testament is rendered as "Lord" here. Why? Because had they translated it consistently as "Jehovah" like they do in other places, they'd have to render Saul's question as "Who are you, Jehovah?", to which Jehovah replies, "I AM JESUS, whom you are persecuting." (Acts 9:5)
This would go against their denominal theology, and since they won't entertain changing their doctrine against Jesus Christ, even if the truth smacked them in the face, they'll break with the consistency of their own translation where it suits them.
In my opinion, not only is this inaccurate, it is deceitful.
__________________
10/27/2005 - In answer to Hedrick's criticism and biased rating (since he is JW):
David Hedrick: Check the preface to your Bible, where it explains why the name Jehovah was removed and replaced with 'Lord'.
TulsaDavid: The early church knew that the Jehovah of the Old Testament is the Jesus of the New Testament. That is because they received a revelation of Who Jesus is, which is the very Rock His church is built upon.
Mind you, I am monotheistic. But the monotheistic fallacy of the JW heresy I reject. The revelation that God Himself, not some 2nd person of a later-developed triune philosophy, was manifested in flesh as Jesus Christ (I Tim 3:16) is the Rock that His church is built upon.
The name "Jehovah" was the supreme revelation of God in the Old Testament, with the particular connotation that the Almighty God was specifically the Deliverer and Savior (Exodus 6). The New Testament revelation of God is consistent with the OT emphasis on one God, but it adds the new revelation that God has come in flesh to be our personal savior. Thus the highest name is "Jesus", which literally neans "Jehovah-Savior" (Isaiah 12). That's why the tru apostolic church baptized in the name of Jesus Christ and not in a triune formula.
The JW's have stopped short of this revelation. But it is Jesus Christ, the King of kings and Lord of lords, the Almighty, the Alpha and Omega, the true God and eternal life.
__________________
10/28/2005 - Criticisms and responses:
Shallea: (John 1:18) "No man has seen God at any time", seems so simple anyone should understand.
TulsaDavid: Don't forget the rest of that verse " ... The only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared Him."
God is infinite, absolutely, past finding out. Scripture says His riches are unsearchable. But, thankfully, He has chosen to identify Himself to us, to reveal Himself to us. And He did that in temporary, various and different ways in the OT, but in these last days, He has revealed Himself to us in Jesus Christ, the express image of His person. Not a 2nd person, not a 3rd, but God Himself manifested in humanity. This is how the "Son" declared the "Father", not as some 2nd person declaring some 1st person. You'll never find one single verse that specifies these distinctions as being persons. Not one.
Anonymous: 1 Cor.15:24 "when he hands over the kingdom to his God and Father" written by Paul/Saul, Jesus is not God.
TulsaDavid: I see you are substituting some words in this verse. It accurately reads "when He delivers the kingdom to God the Father". The pronoun "his" is not there. The conjunction "and" is not there. And you're force-fitting a definition that this means Jesus is not God, and that is not there.
Rightly divide the word. Isa 9:6 says that Jesus is "the Mighty God, the Everlasting Father." Those are definitions, direct equations of Who Jesus is.
Comments
And that is just one...
by Thom64 on October 24th, 2005
Useful because it contains reference to a debated scripture, but conclusions are all wrong.
by Anonymous on December 16th, 2005
by Acts238 on December 10th, 2005
(John 1:18) "No man has seen God at any time", seems so simple anyone should understand.
by Anonymous on October 27th, 2005
1 Cor.15:24 "when he hands over the kingdom to his God and Father" written by Paul/Saul, Jesus is not God
by Anonymous on October 27th, 2005
I have to give this answer a 9.999! excellent!
by wfbrad on December 1st, 2005
Absolutely correct!
by Autumn Riley on December 7th, 2005
Not one single comment mentions Proverbs 8;22-30. Jesus was created. God's very first. God was not.
by pugwashjw65 on January 2nd, 2006
Hang on Pugwash. Jn 1:2 "He was in the beginning with God." Then read Gen 1:1 and 2. Jesus Created? Get real!
by Shabba on January 10th, 2006
Hey pug- you silly. Proverbs 8:22-30 is anthropomorphic. It gives wisdom, "she", human characteristics. It is talking about wisdom not Christ. Besides if you think that there was a time that God did not have wisdom, then He wouldn't have been God, now would He?
by ViceGrip on November 16th, 2006
pugwashjw65: check out Proverbs 9:1-2 - "Wisdom has built HER house; SHE has hewn out it's seven pillars. SHE has prepared HER meat and mixed HER wine; SHE has also set HER table." ... are you calling Jesus a woman?! If Jesus is this wisdom (like JW's like to say because it fits into their "Jesus was created" story) ... then why is wisdom a woman in the story?! ViceGrip is RIGHT! The use of wisdom in Proverbs 8 is anthropomorphic ... and is NOT meant to be read OUT OF CONTEXT ... like you are doing! It isn't Jesus talking ... it is the author of Proverbs (Solomon) personifying the idea of wisdom as a woman to illustrate his point that wisdom is supreme. It has NOTHING to do with Jesus ... please explain why you think Jesus is a woman!
by brian_griffith on December 30th, 2006
Anonymous: Jesus and the Father are EQUAL in divinity (Father: Isaiah 41:4 // Jesus: Revelation 2:8) ... but they are not equal in position to one another ... Jesus submits to the Father. If your father tells you do take out the trash ... and you obey him ... does that make you not equal to him in your human nature? NO! You are still a human ... just like he is!
by brian_griffith on December 30th, 2006
pugwashjw65: It has been a few days since I have left my comment above. I will assume that you have conceded to my point and that you have no defense in return. Good day.
by brian_griffith on January 4th, 2007
In line with the principle at 1Cor 15:27-28, it is evident that everything, would be with the exception of himself and God, as he obviously did not create himself or God. The Bible shows that God created Jesus and then through Jesus, he created everything else.
1Cor 15:27-28 For [God] “subjected all things under his feet.” But when he says that ‘all things have been subjected,’ it is evident that it is with the exception of the one who subjected all things to him. 28 But when all things will have been subjected to him, then the Son himself will also subject himself to the One who subjected all things to him, that God may be all things to everyone.
(1 Corinthians 8:6) there is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him; and there is one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things are, and we through him.
(Hebrews 1:2) has at the end of these days spoken to us by means of a Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the systems of things.
(John 1:3) All things came into existence through him, and apart from him not even one thing came into existence. What has come into existence http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=G5565&t=NASB
(John 1:10) He was in the world, and the world came into existence through him, but the world did not know him.
(Colossians 1:15-16) He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation; 16 because by means of him all [other] things were created in the heavens and upon the earth, the things visible and the things invisible, no matter whether they are thrones or lordships or governments or authorities. All [other] things have been created through him and for him.
(Revelation 3:14) “And to the angel of the congregation in La‧o‧di‧ce′a write: These are the things that the Amen says, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation by God,
(Proverbs 8:22) “Jehovah himself produced me as the beginning of his way, the earliest of his achievements of long ago.
(Proverbs 8:30) then I came to be beside him as a master worker, and I came to be the one he was specially fond of day by day, I being glad before him all the time,
(Genesis 1:26) And God went on to say: “Let us make man in our image, according to our likeness, and let them have in subjection the fish of the sea and the flying creatures of the heavens and the domestic animals and all the earth and every moving animal that is moving upon the earth.”
by Texasescimo on December 14th, 2009
Brian Griffith, in Isaiah 44:6, Jehovah rightly describes his own position as the one and only almighty God, saying: “I am the first and I am the last, and besides me there is no God.” When Jesus presents himself by the title “the First and the Last,” he is not claiming equality with Jehovah, the Grand Creator. He is using a title properly bestowed on him by God. In Isaiah, Jehovah was making a statement about His unique position as the true God. He is God eternal, and besides him there is indeed no God. (1 Timothy 1:17) In Revelation, Jesus is talking about his bestowed title, calling attention to his unique resurrection.
3Jesus was indeed “the First” human to be resurrected to immortal spirit life. (Colossians 1:18) Moreover, he is “the Last” to be so resurrected by Jehovah personally. Thus, he becomes “the living one . . . living forever and ever.” He enjoys immortality. In this, he is like his immortal Father, who is called “the living God.” (Revelation 7:2; Psalm 42:2) For all others of humanity, Jesus himself is “the resurrection and the life.” (John 11:25) In harmony with this, he says to John: “I became dead, but, look! I am living forever and ever, and I have the keys of death and of Hades.” (Revelation 1:18b) Jehovah has given him the authority to resurrect the dead. That is why Jesus can say that he has the keys to unlock the gates for those bound by death and Hades (gravedom).—Compare Matthew 16:18.
by Texasescimo on January 25th, 2010
I would like to see someone explain why YHWH or JHVH and adonai are both translated as lord when YHWH or JHVH and adonai are both in the Hebrew scriptures. Is there some kind of evidence that YHWH has been added and that is why the traditional Church pleasing translators remove it?
Psalms 110:1 looks kinda redundant saying something like "The LORD said to my Lord".
by Texasescimo on October 3rd, 2010