by catlovr on December 8th, 2006

catlovr

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Why do so many people pronounce "ask" as "aks" and am I the only one this irritates?

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  • by Sunblynd 5.0 on December 8th, 2006

    Sunblynd 5.0

    The term "aks" or "ax" eg; axing you a Q. Is derived from street slang terminology related to ebonics in low income area's within the US, namely New York and Southern California, which are just two of the most prominant. Usually people who stress this type of slang symbolize the area's educational rating as far below substandard. Ghetto's and area's with highcrime rates seem to be the most prominant area's where this slang is used. It is also associated with ebonic ghetto talk, most people who are into rap or ghetto music incorporate the use of this term into their own vocabulary, even though they are intellegent enough to use the latter term correctly. Most people mimic other people to fit within a given group or society, in order to fit into these social circles effectively you need to incorporate their language, dress, and body language. Yet doing so suggests a psychological inferiority complex.

    For example; Take the word nigger. Popularized by Richard Pryor to be socially acceptable for African Americans to refer to eachother as a term of endearment or brotherhood. Over the past 20 years it has been stylized by African American rappers into the new term of endearment, nigga's, eg; What's up my nigga?. Rap music inparticular has made the referance socially acceptable among the African American race. But, it is not socially acceptable for the caucasian race to use this term of endearment, even among it's own culture, because of assumed racial context, which is biased and used to invoke racially motivated arguement among the most ignorant.

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    • This is one of the most ignorant comments ever...

      For an intelligent answer go here:

      http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20070905215517AAMcyDZ

      Actually "aks" comes from middle English and "ask" is modern English. Consider that the majority of slave plantations were owned by Americans with British roots and that explains it. "aks" was still widely used in England during the European/American slave trade period. It is called a metathesis, but it metathesized from "aks" to "ask", not vise-versa. To take it back to Old English, "ascian" and "axian/acsian" were both in use. Some whites with strong British heritages/roots in the U.S and other English speaking countries still use this form as well.

      Anonymous

      by Anonymous on November 15th, 2007

    • if the lack of using modernized English was the case it would be in all words, not just one. The truth is exactly what was said. If you listen to someone who usually says ax, talk to a cop, they change their speach pattern, so they KNOW they are talking wrong, because they can when they have to speak correctly.

      medicgirl

      by medicgirl on May 29th, 2008

    • I suppose the original answer also depicts a lower level of education and lower economic income on the part of the poster! Why else would apostrophes be used on words which are plural? Specifically I'm referring to the plural versions of two words, ghettos and areas. They should not have an apostrophe. I find it really amusing that the poster tries to come across as intelligent, but completely gives himself away with the misuse of the apostrophe!

      westvewdr

      by westvewdr on October 6th, 2011

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