by T4 on January 16th, 2012

T4

Question

Help answer this question below.

Does a freely falling body have no force present in it?

Consider a body of mass 'm' freely falling in a straight line.

It keeps accelerating, until it reaches its terminal velocity.

Once it does, it stops accelerating and its velocity becomes and remains constant. This implies there is no deceleration either.

SOOO, this would mean the total acceleration of the body is zero.

.: a = 0 --- [1]

The force acting upon a body is the product of its mass and its acceleration.

F = m.a
F = m.0 ( Applying [1] )
=> F = 0

So, does this mean that no force whatsoever is present in a falling body? o.o

This is not some question I found in some textbook, just so you know. It's something which just suddenly popped into my head from nowhere and has been bothering me greatly >.

  • Like
  • Report

Answers. Showing one answer.

  • by Im Alec on January 17th, 2012

    Im Alec

    It has no /NET/ force acting on it. The downward force of gravity is exactly matched by the upward force of air resistance. The two forces cancel out.

    When it starts falling, there is no air resistance. The force of gravity is constant, but as the speed increases the force of air resistance increases. It continues to accelerate until the two forces cancel out.

    Comments
    • Thanks for your answer :)

      T4

      by T4 on January 17th, 2012

    • Like
    • Report

    1 comment | Post one | Permalink

Want to attach an image to your answer? Click here.

Did this answer your question? If not, then ask a new question or create a poll.

You're reading Does a freely falling body have no force present in it?

Follow us on Facebook!

Related Ads