ANSWERS: 6
  • It's often attributed to Shakespeare. Julius Caesar, Act I, Scene III: "But for my own part, it was Greek to me." Meaning, of course, that it was completely impossible to understand. However, Shakespeare did not make up the phrase, though he is probably the reason that it still exists, given the popularity of the play. It was a phrase that was in reasonably common use in the time of Shakespeare. Thomas Dekker, a contemporary of Shakespeare's (wrote The Shoemaker's Holiday, among other things), used it in one of his plays before Shakespeare used it in Caesar. The actual phrase may be much older, as there is a similar proverb from medieval Latin which translates to "it is Greek, and cannot be understood."
  • my history teacher went on &on about this.. using that phrase. he said the same thing an educated optimist did.. &then i guess it was in monty python? he went on about that too..
  • My grandpappy Ulysses. Everything was greek to him ;)
  • I am pretty sure it was originated by myself or one of my classmates when we were studying it. Having said that, I believe that by An Educated Optimist is correct.
  • 5-20-2017 Greeks say "It's Turkish to me!"
  • Not in Greece that's for sure.

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