Do you subscribe to Modalism or Trinitarianism?

Jesus was created...He existed in heaven, alongside his father, Jehovah God...who HAD no beginning. Jesus did. (Proverbs 8:22-31) Jehovah produced me as the beginning of his way, The earliest of his achievements of long ago. 23 From ancient times I was installed, From the start, from times earlier than the earth. 24 When there were no deep waters, I was brought forth, When there were no springs overflowing with water. 25 Before the mountains were set in place, Before the hills, I was brought forth, 26 When he had not yet made the earth and its fields Or the first clods of earth?s soil. 27 When he prepared the heavens, I was there; When he marked out the horizon on the surface of the waters, 28 When he established the clouds above, When he founded the fountains of the deep, 29 When he set a decree for the sea That its waters should not pass beyond his order, When he established the foundations of the earth, 30 Then I was beside him as a master worker. I was the one he was especially fond of day by day; I rejoiced before him all the time; 31 I rejoiced over his habitable earth, And I was especially fond of the sons of men.

Doesn't mean oneness in being but in work, will and purpose. They are not equal as Jesus himself said in John 14:28, "my Father is greater than I am."

A JW fav. However, Scripture describes the relation much clearer in many verses, as opposed to choosing one verse out of context. Phil. 2:5-8, "Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus, 6who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, 7but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men. 8And being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross." Col. 2:9, "For in Him all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form," Gal. 4:4-5, "But when the fullness of the time came, God sent forth His Son, born of a woman, born under the Law, 5in order that He might redeem those who were under the Law, that we might receive the adoption as sons." Heb. 2:9, "But we do see Him who has been made for a little while lower than the angels, namely, Jesus, because of the suffering of death crowned with glory and honor, that by the grace of God He might taste death for everyone."

God doesn't die.

The holy spirit is Jehovah God's POWER...and is not an identity, let alone be equal...Even Jesus is NOT equal to his father...So the trinity is a false teaching. (Philippians 2:6) who, although he was existing in God?s form, gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God.

"Simply" Father and Son! eeegads. I hope not. We're talking about God here, right? Not a human being such as ourselves. Let's not forget that the beginning of Scripture says that in creation it was Father, Son (the Word that was with God in the beginning, and was God in the beginning), and the Holy Spirit. Read Genesis 1. God said. God Placed. God made. His spirit. If we know that Jesus created everything, Genesis 1 is showing you what He created, and it does not include Himself. He has always been. Father, Son, Holy Spirit. You prove this point of Jesus (the Word) before creation by referencing [Jhn 17:5 NASB] 5 "Now, Father, glorify Me together with Yourself, with the glory which I had with You before the world was." How do you say that Jesus is God's first creation, and then confuse it by trying to prove that he existed alongside the Father prior to creation. The verses in Proverbs have been distorted into doctrines of men, but Solomon?s primary intent of verses 22-30 is to communicate that God used wisdom when He created the world. God was wise from the beginning. David echoes this idea in the Psalms. He writes, ?O Lord, how manifold are your works! In wisdom have you made them all; the earth is full of your creatures? (Psa. 104:24). I'm confused as to your intent, or should I say the intent of the Watchtower and Bible Tract Society. lol I believe Scripture is clear and doesn't need to be convoluted by the doctrines of men. The word qanah, which the Watchtower NWT translates as produced, or created is better described as posses. Most scholars would agree, unless you are trying to meet a doctrine. Jehovah could not have produced wisdom. Wisdom is one of His essential attributes that Jehovah has possessed from eternity. If the NWT is correct, then Jehovah lacked wisdom until He produced it. Since Jehovah is eternal, this means that He eternally existed without the virtue of wisdom until He produced it a finite time ago. That of course would not make sense to any logical person that believes Scripture. Always interpret what is unclear in light of what is clear. And it is clear that Jesus (the Word) has always existed with the Father God and the Holy Spirit.

Hey Gone! I know you dislike the NWT. Which bible translation do you prefer again? I forget.

Was " A " GOD...NOT was God...God , the word, is a title, not a name...Even Satan is called "a" god. (2 Corinthians 4:4) among whom the god of this system of things has blinded the minds of the unbelievers, so that the illumination of the glorious good news about the Christ, who is the image of God, might not shine through. This is Satan...

I wonder how Gone feels about Psalm 8:5?

True, God is the head of Christ. (1 Corinthians 11:3) Yes they are not the same. No where do we find that idea taught in scripture.

Uhhh... pretty sure that it IS taught in Scripture. Phil. 2:5-8, "Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus, 6who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, 7but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men. 8And being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross." Col. 2:9, "For in Him all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form," Gal. 4:4-5, "But when the fullness of the time came, God sent forth His Son, born of a woman, born under the Law, 5in order that He might redeem those who were under the Law, that we might receive the adoption as sons." Heb. 2:9, "But we do see Him who has been made for a little while lower than the angels, namely, Jesus, because of the suffering of death crowned with glory and honor, that by the grace of God He might taste death for everyone."

Nothing about a trinity here. Jesus wasn't Trinitarian.

Not according to Scripture. (Luke 1:32) Jesus is the "Son of the Most High."

Jehovah is the LORD of the Lord Jesus. (Psalm 110:1)

Phil. 2:5-8, "Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus, 6who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, 7but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men. 8And being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross." Col. 2:9, "For in Him all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form," Gal. 4:4-5, "But when the fullness of the time came, God sent forth His Son, born of a woman, born under the Law, 5in order that He might redeem those who were under the Law, that we might receive the adoption as sons." Heb. 2:9, "But we do see Him who has been made for a little while lower than the angels, namely, Jesus, because of the suffering of death crowned with glory and honor, that by the grace of God He might taste death for everyone."

How does John 6:46 show that Jesus is not the Father?

Jesus isn't the Father.

We agree Gone. The Father is the God of Jesus.

the God and Father of. . . Christ--and so the God and Father of us who are in Him ( Jhn 20:17 ). God is "the God" of the man Jesus, and "the Father" of the Divine Word. The Greek is, "Blessed us," not "hath blessed us"; referring to the past original counsel of God. As in creation ( Gen 1:22 ) so in redemption ( Gen 12:3 Mat 5:3-11 25:34 ) Jesus referred to the Father as his God. This does not mean Jesus himself was not God, for the Apostles and the earliest Church fathers all recognized him as God while at the same time recognizing that the Father was Jesus? God with no apparent tension. Furthermore, the Father may be God to Jesus in the sense that he is his final authority before whom unswerving and unquestioned love and devotion are given above all others.

Remember that the Word that was with God, and the Word that was God... Jesus... had humbled himself and emptied himself in the incarnation and was cooperating with the limitations of being a man while acting under Jewish law (Philippians 2:5-8). Also, Jesus is still a man (1 Tim. 2:5; Col. 2:9) and will be a man forever (1 Cor. 15:28; Heb. 6:20; 7:25). Therefore, it can be said that Jesus, the man, had someone he would call his God, and his was a reference to the Father. Since he will always be a man (as well as divine), he will always have someone he will call his God -- but this is in reference to God the Father. That does not mean that Jesus does not share the same divine nature as God the Father, since the Bible says that Jesus is also God made man (John 1:1,14; Col. 2:9; Heb. 1:8). You're confusing the quantitative with the qualitative meaning of the word GOD.

Jesus still has someone God to him even after his glorious resurrection to heaven. He is the Son of the Most High. He is not the Most High.