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Is "Due to Shareholders" a debt?

By Naveen Asked Jul 30 2008 3:06AM
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Answer 1 out of 2

by kazimmavus on Mar 1, 2009 at 1:19 am Permalink

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It depends on the nature.
If, the shareholder provided a (thereof obtained from banks) loan with an interest, it should be classified under loans.

If, the nature is an expense, such as, if you pay royalty to your shareholder company for your sales, it should be classified under trade payables.

If the above criteria is met but the amount is not invoiced yet, then you will record it under "accruals".

If, the payable is stemming from a distributed but not paid dividend, then you'll classify it under "other liabilities" or in a seperate line named "due to shareholders" in the balance sheet based on the materiality of the amount.
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Answer 2 out of 2

by Rollie on Aug 3, 2008 at 12:37 pm Permalink

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It is and should be recorded in accural accounting after authorization.
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