by 
Anonymous
ANSWERS: 2
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You need to be more specific. A person cannot devise something to a person if they do not own it. However, there can be a contract for a sale which has not been effectuated yet, which could result in a conveyance to the deceased's estate.
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What I mean is if a couple are married and husband buys a home wife in not on the deed and a year later he adds her to the deed, and he then makes a will and leaves there home to his son is this legal?
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