Can someone clarify this contradiction for me:

"... I have seen God face to face, and my life is preserved." -- Genesis 32:30

"No man hath seen God at any time..."-- John 1:18

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• Way to rectify that. :)

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  by Dmitri on June 2nd, 2008

• That really makes no sense whatsoever.

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  by killdrphil - reasonable for a madman on June 2nd, 2008

• i suppose one would have to read the text around both quotes in order to full yunderstand your interpretation
  never the less, i call shenanigans

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  by jehan60188 on June 2nd, 2008

• Do you have any evidence to back that up? Last time I checked the Bible wasn't originally written in English and with english being such a limited language you must refer back to the Greek.

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  by Rechoryan on June 2nd, 2008

• Can you be more clear? Gen 32 is clear..."....I have seen "God" face to face"....According to the other writings in the begining of Old Testament(and if they are to be believed), it was common for God to talk to people face to face...starting with adam...so, nothing special about his alleged face to face discussions with Jacob in this verse....so, my original question still stands!!!

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  by Tsamaya is on semi-retirement on June 2nd, 2008

• back what up?
  i'm only ascerting that it's an awefully convenient interpretation.
  do YOU have any evidence to back up your interpretation?

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  by jehan60188 on June 2nd, 2008

• You're right, but those were not total manifestations of God, they were not God in his full glorified form. John himself walked with Jesus for 3 years on earth, but when he witnessed Jesus in his glorified form he fell to his feet as dead. How about when Moses asked to see the Glory of God and he denied him that because he said he would die.

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  by Rechoryan on June 2nd, 2008

• Though I don't believe mucu of the bible, I could argue that Jacob was before Moses....and there could be an explanation that it was when God was drifting away from man's naked eyes...mind this could be my logical answer...given my initial statement that "in the beginning of OT".....not that I believe much about the bible....I just use logic thinking of his supposed denial to show himself to Moses......can we now go back to my original question...why the contradiction?

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  by Tsamaya is on semi-retirement on June 2nd, 2008

• so then nobody can see god in his 'true' form; so the guy in 32:30 didn't do anything special seeing as how anyone can see a 'toned down' version of god without dying
  
  also, john hung out with jesus for 3 years, and still didn't understand him? must've been a bad friend...

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  by jehan60188 on June 2nd, 2008

• Look at the whole group of his Disciples I think they missed the forest for the trees most of the time, alot like us. The guy in 32:30 wrestled with God, most scholars believe it was an early incarnation of Jesus anyways.

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  by Rechoryan on June 2nd, 2008

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• I agree that you are confused....maybe you should buy another bible....you must check the New Testament.....the fourth book should be John.....Chapter 1, verse 18 will help you. If your bible has no such a book then it's a fake.....

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  by Tsamaya is on semi-retirement on June 2nd, 2008

• Sorry, you're right. I was looking at the Johns in the back of the new testament.

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  by Dedao Capoeira-seed on June 2nd, 2008

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