Sexuality and Gender in the Bible
 
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If sex is to be restricted to a husband and wife, why did Solomon have hundreds of concubines?

By AntigoneRising Asked Sep 6 2006 9:22AM
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Top Answer out of 15

by Perryman on Sep 29, 2006 at 9:10 am Permalink

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This answer was last edited on: Jul 23, 2007
This account is recorded at I Kings 11: 1-8

There in short it states, "And he came to have seven hundred wives, princesses, and three hundred concubines".

Your answer is that was both these foreign wives and these foreign concubines that exposed him to a real "mixed stew" of pagan thinking. Can you imagine trying to keep all of those different women happy? He must have compromised his faith trying to get along with them, trying too hard to be agreeable. He allowed his personal relationship with his God to suffer.
Now for some more detail:

"As long as Solomon remained true to the worship of Jehovah, he prospered. Evidently his proverbs were uttered, and the books of Ecclesiastes and The Song of Solomon, as well as at least one of the Psalms (Ps 127), were written during his period of faithful service to God. However, Solomon began to disregard God’s law. We read: “And King Solomon himself loved many foreign wives along with the daughter of Pharaoh, Moabite, Ammonite, Edomite, Sidonian and Hittite women, from the nations of whom Jehovah had said to the sons of Israel: ‘You must not go in among them, and they themselves should not come in among you; truly they will incline your heart to follow their gods.’ It was to them that Solomon clung to love them. And he came to have seven hundred wives, princesses, and three hundred concubines; and his wives gradually inclined his heart. And it came about in the time of Solomon’s growing old that his wives themselves had inclined his heart to follow other gods; and his heart did not prove to be complete with Jehovah his God like the heart of David his father. And Solomon began going after Ashtoreth the goddess of the Sidonians and after Milcom the disgusting thing of the Ammonites. And Solomon began to do what was bad in the eyes of Jehovah, and he did not follow Jehovah fully like David his father. It was then that Solomon proceeded to build a high place to Chemosh the disgusting thing of Moab on the mountain that was in front of Jerusalem, and to Molech the disgusting thing of the sons of Ammon. And that was the way he did for all his foreign wives who were making sacrificial smoke and sacrificing to their gods.” 1Ki 11:1-8.
While this took place “in the time of Solomon’s growing old,” we need not assume that his deviation was because of senility, for Solomon was relatively young when taking the throne, and the length of his reign was 40 years. (1Ch 29:1, 2Ch 9:30) The account does not say that Solomon completely forsook the worship at the temple and the offering of sacrifices there. He apparently attempted to practice a sort of interfaith, in order to please his foreign wives. For this, “Jehovah came to be incensed at Solomon, because his heart had inclined away from Jehovah the God of Israel, the one appearing to him twice.” Jehovah informed Solomon that, as a consequence, He would rip part of the kingdom away from him, but not in Solomon’s day, out of respect for David and for the sake of Jerusalem. But he would do it in the days of Solomon’s son, leaving that son with only one tribe (besides Judah), which tribe proved to be Benjamin. 1Ki 11:9-13.

It is not sufficient simply to gain knowledge. It is also essential for God’s servants to act upon that knowledge, to apply it according to the divine will, yes, to do “just so".
This is a lesson that Solomon evidently forgot.


Source: Insight on the Scriptures, Volume II Pages 987, 998 Watchtower Bible and Tract Society.
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Avatar AntigoneRising Jul, 23 2007 at 03:09 AM
This mixed view of pagan thinking doesn't explain the same behavior by Abraham, Jacob, and David (among others). At least you have the most sensical answer out here and don't give answers based upon wives (instead of concubines).

Answer 2 out of 15

by Duane Roelands on Sep 6, 2006 at 9:37 am Permalink

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Short answer:
Because Solomon was disobeying God's commands.

Long answer:
While Solomon was very much with God at the beginning of his reign, it was not so in the latter years; he worshipped false idols and even built temples for them.

In 1st Kings 11:11, Solomon is rebuked by God for his sins, saying ""Since this is your attitude and you have not kept my covenant and my decrees, which I commanded you, I will most certainly tear the kingdom away from you and give it to one of your subordinates."

So, Solomon had hundreds of wives because he was turning away from God.
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Avatar AntigoneRising Sep, 29 2006 at 11:31 AM
The answer is not the same, as I as I asked about sexual activity OUTSIDE of a marital relationship. BTW, neither is the behavior condemned by the Bible.
Avatar Duane Roelands Sep, 29 2006 at 12:11 PM
Sex outside of marriage is condemned in many places in the Bible. The story of Solomon also explains what happened to him as a result of his sin. You seem less interested in an answer than in making some point.
Avatar AntigoneRising Jul, 23 2007 at 03:08 AM
The answer does not fit with all of the patriarchs which Yahweh blessed who had sex outside of a marital relationship. If the answer is nonsensical to what the Bible says about the patriarchs, and addresses marriage instead of concubines (as I asked about), it isn't the fault of any "point" I wish to make.

Answer 3 out of 15

by bignose on Sep 17, 2006 at 6:43 am Permalink

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---he was very horny--
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Avatar joebud Nov, 14 2009 at 09:52 AM
Yep. I bet it burned when he took a piss.

Answer 4 out of 15

by tomsims on Jul 23, 2007 at 5:47 pm Permalink

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The Bible shows people as they are with strengths and flaws. It is brutally honest and sometimes, strangely non-judgmental. David was an adulterer and a murderer, but those behaviors are not commended to us. Nor are many of the behaviors of the flawed and very human people God spoke to, loved, and used in the Bible.
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Avatar AntigoneRising Jul, 23 2007 at 10:52 PM
Interesting that Yahweh would chose such men to exhalt and bless (Abraham and Jacob were also polygynists with concubines, to boot). Women were stoned and burned for the same behavior. Yahweh's default acceptance (by silence), if not support of, this behavior in men is disturbing. Thanks for the answer, though.

Answer 5 out of 15

by DavidPhilipGreenwood on Jul 23, 2007 at 2:42 am Permalink

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In response to AntigoneRising's comment, I did say that what actually happened in Old Testament times is that concubines and "extra wives" were kept for sex (the following are quotes from my answer)

"I think that God did sanction multiple wives and concubines in a RIGHTEOUS, NON-SEXUAL WAY. But as with Solomon it didn't always happen in a righteous way."

I was suggesting that God allows more than one woman in a household providing it is not a sexual relationship:

"Like I said, I'm not suggesting that in actuality things happened as God would have wanted. But I am suggesting the ideal, assuming God did sanction the concept of extra wives and concubines, and this is my interpretation of how God could ever have sanctioned this extended household with many women."
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Avatar AntigoneRising Jul, 23 2007 at 03:17 AM
Interesting how a woman who had sex outside of her marriage was stoned, but these men had sex outside of their marriages and were exhalted by Yahweh.
Avatar Magenta Jul, 23 2007 at 01:34 PM
quote:
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I think that God did sanction multiple wives and concubines in a RIGHTEOUS, NON-SEXUAL WAY.
---
??????
What exactly is a RIGHTEOUS, NON-SEXUAL WAY to have a concubine or another wife?
The ancient semitic people DID have the concept of maids and cleaning women- they had a non-sexual role.
What could possibly be the purpose of a concubine other than sex?!?

Answer 6 out of 15

by DavidPhilipGreenwood on Jul 22, 2007 at 2:59 pm Permalink

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This is a difficult question. As a Christian I do believe our loving God only ever sanctioned a loving relationship between one man and one woman who become one for life.

I think the simple, easy answer is that Solomon was sinful toward the end of his reign, as others have suggested. BUT I think that God did sanction multiple wives and concubines in a RIGHTEOUS, NON-SEXUAL WAY. But as with Solomon it didn't always happen in a righteous way.

There is at least one verse in the bible that talks of a man being "mighty" for having multiple wives _and_ concubines. Now that seems puzzling given that lifelong monogamy is God's desire and will.

I would suggest that the extra wives and concubines were permitted as "women to have loving, non-sexual, spiritual fellowship with." That is, they are women who, otherwise lonely and rejected, were given a place in the household and permitted to have close, spiritual fellowship with the head of the house- and indeed his wife- but NEVER to have sex with him. And I think that this would be God-honouring. In other words, this is like having female friends round to help. This is like having lodgers. These are your best friends who chose to be virgins in the household.

Like I said, I'm not suggesting that in actuality things happened as God would have wanted. But I am suggesting the ideal, assuming God did sanction the concept of extra wives and concubines, and this is my interpretation of how God could ever have sanctioned this extended household with many women. Let me make it clear again, however:

SEX IS ONLY BETWEEN THE ONE MAN AND ONE LIFELONG WOMAN PARTNER.

Clearly the men who engaged in multiple "wives" and "concubines" should have been faithful sexually to the one of the women: the true wife, the primary woman, the "first lady" of the household. There should have been fidelity. Sex should not have gone on between the man and any other woman in the household whether this extra was termed "wife," "concubine" or anything else.

Clearly this didn't always happen. But the people involved should have had only one full wife. This message must be clear: ONE MAN ONE WOMAN was the real Law of Love, God's Law. BUT some broke it. And God did indeed discipline Solomon for his promiscuity in the end.

I think that God did permit multiple women in a man's house BUT this was only to be as "non-sexual" relationships. Sure, these were women who were TO BE LOVED but NOT sexually. God's "heart's desire" was that only THE ONE MAN AND THE ONE WOMAN were ever to actually have marital sex (the true "marriage"). The other women in the household were his "as friends." They were merely to be close friends with rights and privileges. Incidently, if they were treated as slaves that was just the culture. But I cannot see how our loving God EVER condones men sleeping (having sex with) multiple women. I DO BELIEVE he allowed friendship-relationships between a man and many women in one married household where there is the PRIMARY WOMAN AND MAN.

The final piece in the puzzle, for me, is that the Bible talks about people having multiple wives AND concubines. So, what is the difference?

What was the difference between (a) the primary wife (b) the secondary (non-sexual) wives and (c) the concubines?

My Answer:

(a) The true wife was the one that was really married and she could have sex with the head of the household. She made decisions about the household and shared in the wealth and was the "first lady" who had authority over the rest of the household but the man was the head.

(b) Remember, God permitted these "wives" and "concubines" as non-sexual friends. The secondary non-sexual "wives" had pretty-much equal rights and privileges to the one, true wife- access to wealth, decision-making, etc. but WITHOUT the sex. But they would have been second to the real, married wife. They were special friends of the husband, the head of the house, and they were to HELP. Remember, God created Eve (woman) as HELPER to man. These "wives" were extra-special friends who submitted to the head of the house as friends and helpers to share in his wealth and friendship. It was spiritual fellowship.

(c) The concubines were to be non-sexual servant-women. They were to look after the running of the house, doing chores, with some privileges and wealth but, again, no sex etc. They were answerable in terms of duties. They were basically employed servant-girls. BUT they were NOT to have sex. These were girls that didn't have a sexual partner of their own but wanted the love of a "head of the household." They were under the one, true wife. These are girls that wanted the FELLOWSHIP of the man to alleviate their loneliness. But concubines were never meant to have sex.

I'm not suggesting it actually happened that way, but that is the only way I can believe God would be able to allow it.

Matthew 19 shows that really there is to be only one real marriage between a man and his (one) wife. And that marriage is (in my humble opinion) consecrated in the marriage bed (the true union that makes it a real marriage). Any ceremony is extra. But clearly there's to be only one man and one woman in this special relationship and it is for life.

4"Haven't you read," he replied, "that at the beginning the Creator 'made them male and female,'[a] 5and said, 'For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh'[b]? 6So they are no longer two, but one. Therefore what God has joined together, let man not separate."

7"Why then," they asked, "did Moses command that a man give his wife a certificate of divorce and send her away?"

8Jesus replied, "Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning. 9I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, and marries another woman commits adultery."

So there's only to be one man and one woman in this actual marriage relationship.
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Avatar AntigoneRising Jul, 22 2007 at 09:46 PM
Nonsexual? What about Abraham, Jacob, David, etc? Jacobs 12 sons were by 4 different women, and it is clear from birth order tha the relationships were simultaneous. Concubines are sex slaves. Points for having the guts to answer, though.
Avatar Magenta Jul, 23 2007 at 01:40 PM
David, this is entirely projection- you are taking your morality and trying to apply it to these ancient people.
They considered women to be property. The entire purpose of a woman was to bear and raise children, and to be available for a man's pleasure.
A barren woman was a useless thing, a woman who had been raped was a useless thing, a widow was a useless thing, an old woman who's children had grown was a useless thing.
A woman was not to speak unless spoken to, a woman could not own property, women then were like women are now in that same geographic region.
There was no "spiritual fellowship" involved. Only men shared that.

Answer 7 out of 15

by noletters on Mar 26, 2007 at 1:03 pm Permalink

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A lot of people had sex outside of marriage in the scriptures. Nothing ever happened to them and it wasn't always spoken of as negative so I don't know, I think it was a general law becasue how would you know who the father of your child was, or STDs would spread, or things like that. Great question.
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Avatar AntigoneRising Jul, 23 2007 at 03:13 AM
The only fully sensical answer I've yet read. Why is this downrated?

Answer 8 out of 15

by NJBSTL on Sep 25, 2006 at 7:46 pm Permalink

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Actually it's because back then there wer no divorce laywers.
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Avatar Brian I Jul, 23 2007 at 04:03 AM
No, I realise that it isn't a joke question, it's an attack on people whose beliefs are different to yours. Something that you get annoyed at when the boot is on the other foot.
Avatar AntigoneRising Jul, 23 2007 at 04:32 AM
I'd love to see the attack part. What exactly is the attack? Where? It was in regards to a Christian telling me that Yahweh's plan is for one man and one woman, which is totally unsupported in the lives of the patriarchs. There is a difference between an attack and a legitimate question giving believers an opportunity to explain (not that anyone has been able to, but that's hardly my fault) the contridiction. Additionally, you can look at any question in the Wicca section which is attacking (devil worship, etc), and see how I respond. I would hardly call it annoyed.
Avatar AntigoneRising Jul, 23 2007 at 04:45 AM

Answer 9 out of 15

by 23Skidoo on Apr 23, 2008 at 4:34 pm Permalink

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Hypocracy?

Like why some priests and preachers have sex with hookers, altar boys, etc...
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Answer 10 out of 15

by Spirit and Flesh on Aug 1, 2007 at 4:56 pm Permalink

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Ok, we have to use logic here. incest is obviously wrong. Why? It brings about deformity and other social ills. however did not cain marry or have intercouse with his sisters? This had to be done and obviously in god's arrangment to carry on human life. Today it is no longer needed, likewise multiple wives in connection to the lineage that brought about christ and other prophets of Israel. Solomon may have been doing this and may have not with some wives, who really cares! The point is today is different, God's arrangements have also changed, so there is no debate. Reread carefully, what i wrote concerning this issue in my other comment prior to this one.
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Avatar AntigoneRising Aug, 01 2007 at 11:07 PM
I care. It is very relevant that this Deity ever allowed, sanctioned, or approved of such sexist behavior when people try to convince me to worship It. It also matters when Christians say things that their own book gives solid, extensive evidence against.


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