by Jimmyp on April 1st, 2008

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Why do we anglicize German and Italian city names (München to Munich, Napoli to Naples, etc) but not French or Spanish city names?

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by WiiBoy on September 12th, 2009
because us americans got lazy and stopped translating :)
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- Seems that way.
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  by Jimmyp on September 12th, 2009
- hahha it does.
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  by WiiBoy on September 13th, 2009
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by WayTooUgly on September 12th, 2009
Your question assumes facts not proven. Just because you can't think of any cities Anglicized doesn't make it so. Although not European, "Mexico City" comes immediately to mind. So perhaps your premise is flawed.
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- Ciudad Mexico is in the American Continent.
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  by Jimmyp on September 12th, 2009
- Really?? What part of "Although not European" did you not understand?
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  My statement still stands. Just because you say something is so, or make up something like the "American Continent," does not make it so. What source do you cite that supports your claim?
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  by WayTooUgly on September 13th, 2009
- Sorry, don't be a troll. Just my opinion.
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  by Jimmyp on September 13th, 2009
- Yeah ugly. Why so hostile?
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  by jeffmetcalf on January 14th, 2010
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Why do we anglicize German and Italian city names (München to Munich, Napoli to Naples, etc) but not French or Spanish city names?

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Why do we anglicize German and Italian city names (München to Munich, Napoli to Naples, etc) but not French or Spanish city names?

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