Do you think the legal definition of "Murder" should be revised to exclude killings in which the (for want of a better word) "Victim" gave express, confirmed consent to be killed?
by 
Mr. Meaulnes
ANSWERS: 5
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It depends on the mental state of the victim when they gave that express and confirmed consent to be killed I suppose.
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That sounds more like assisted suicide to me. And yes.
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Yes, and I think other terms are used in that situation (I could be wrong) such as homicide or manslaughter. If not, I agree it should be changed.
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Not necessarily. I think assisted suicide should be legalized. I believe that we treat our pets better than we treat our loved ones.
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NO. Murder in the legal sense is a definition that hinges not on the intent of the victim, but the intent of the killer. The technical legal term is called Mens Rea. Therefore, if the killer as in the case of your example comitted the act with the intent (mens Rea) then the intent of the victim is not important. Murder in this case is appropriate.
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