If there are runners on 1st and 3rd with no outs, and the next batter grounds into a 6-4-3 double play, allowing the runner from 3rd to score, then why isn't the batter credited with an RBI?

I know what your saying but that's the rule in baseball. If a runner scores as a batter hits into a ground ball double play, no RBI is given.

Here's the Official Major League Baseball Rules on RBI's:

http://mlb.mlb.com/NASApp/mlb/mlb/official_info/official_rules/official_scorer_10.jsp

In the Annual League meetings in 1939 they voted to change the rule because they didn't think a batter should get an RBI if he is responsible for making 2 outs on 1 play.

There other times when a double play is made and the batter gets credit for an RBI, BUT each time it was the fault of the base runner, not the batter. Example: Runner gets thrown out at 3rd on a Sac. Fly and a run scores, etc.

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If there are runners on 1st and 3rd with no outs, and the next batter grounds into a 6-4-3 double play, allowing the runner from 3rd to score, then why isn't the batter credited with an RBI?

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If there are runners on 1st and 3rd with no outs, and the next batter grounds into a 6-4-3 double play, allowing the runner from 3rd to score, then why isn't the batter credited with an RBI?

Answers. 1 helpful answer below.

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