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by Anonymous on February 5th, 2008

Anonymous

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Can a Pitcher throwing from the stretch with a runner on 1st and no other runners on base, make a spin move to 2nd base and throw a fielder covering 2nd when the runner is stealing?

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Answers. 2 helpful answers below.

  • by ab19901 on February 8th, 2008

    ab19901

    Yes. A pitcher can throw to an unoccupied base for the purpose of making a play and attempting to retire a stealing runner is making a play. As tibear said, the pitcher cannot make any motion toward the plate. That would commit him to deliver the pitch to the batter.

    To add to tibear's answer, he also cannot hesitate in his motion to second base. If he turns toward first and hesitates before completing his move to second base, that would be a balk. It's covered under Rule 8.05 Comment: (b) With a runner on first base the pitcher may make a complete turn, without hesitating toward first, and throw to second. This is not to be interpreted as throwing to an unoccupied base.

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  • by tibear on February 8th, 2008

    tibear

    As long as he doesn't make any movement towards home plate then he is perfectly allowed to throw from the rubber to "make a play".

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