- NEW!
by Nicole on November 10th, 2007
Actually, there are three layers that are taken into consideration in Real Estate! Surface Rights, Subsurface Rights and Air Rights! Just because you buy a piece of land doesn't mean you own the dirt underneath it or the air above it! For example, if I had a business that dug up dirt and then turned around and sold it for a profit, and I wanted to buy a Hundred Acres to do that on, I would want to make sure that the property that I was buying INCLUDED the Subsurface (which is the minerals, petroleum, natural gas and so forth). It will usually say "EX Sub..." in the legal description and that means the the Subsurface is EXCLUDED from the property because it is owned by someone else (a previous owner). The same goes with the Air Rights...there can be building rights, easements or aerial navigations! It is very important for your Realtor to look for these things! So there are some instances when, NO...you don't own your land all the way down to the core! But most of the time, Yes...if you own a piece of property you own it from the core of the earth to as far up as you can go!
Nicole Crosby/Crosby Realty Inc
by Sheriff Raff -Answerhag on December 28th, 2007
You own nothing. Stop making one tax payment and you will find that out quick. You are simply renting it.
by ron s is back on September 28th, 2007
In most areas the answer would be yes. In some areas of the globe, they only own the first three feet of the crust. Beyond that the land is owned by the state or in some cases the country. This is true of oil producing states. And even though you own the land, you may not own the rights to any minerals found on that land.
by Jeffers on September 28th, 2007
Actually, I don't think so... Google: mineral rights in terms of property rights.
I think there are specific laws about how deep you actually own, before it is not yours.
This comes into play when cities build subways, mining, oil drilling, etc...
by Anonymous on May 20th, 2008
This depends on where you live. When you buy land, you are generally buying the surface and mineral rights. However, in some states you must specifically purchase the surface and mineral rights in order to own both. In other states, it is presumed you own both unless the conveyance says otherwise.
by Yarnlady is happy every day on May 6th, 2008
No, and usually not the air space over it either. They only own the surface, and sometimes there are exceptions to that, such as a utility or road easement.
by ChillWinterheart on February 4th, 2008
I believe so, just the same as the owner of the land would own the sky over that land.
This would explain why military airbases do not allow civilian aircraft to fly in their airspace; it's THEIRS.
This would also explain why Kuwait is rich. [Surprise! They own the oil beneath their country.]
by saffyanne on February 4th, 2008
Great question. 2 points. I think they should own it to the center by rights, but that's just my opinion - i wouldn't know the answer for sure.
by Dee Dee just havin some fun on December 28th, 2007
It depends on the deed. Usually you only get the dirt. minerals are owned by some other entity.
by Nelson - Jetpacking from bed on September 28th, 2007
Depends on the land deed. Where I live, the answer is no. I think I own the first few feet, but then the city owns it. I know that I have no mineral rights.
by MrBLT needs to be contained on September 28th, 2007
Yes - I think you do. Great question!
by Mini_kilt on September 28th, 2007
In most places, no. The "state" needs to reserve the space for piplines and other goodies.
by R U Sirius on September 28th, 2007
Why not..........If you own the land then you own the oil if theres any. So whats stopping you from playing around with all the hot molten Magma.
by Marama on May 9th, 2007
No, the local gvt fix the maximum depth you can dig in your propery. Beside that limit, it's gvt territory.
by Gideon on May 9th, 2007
They barely even own it on the surface. They have to pay taxes on it and the government can snatch it up any time WalMart wants to build a new store.
by LeMeThink on December 29th, 2006
Yes, if you can go on making basements below each other.
by Anonymous on May 14th, 2006
Yes, actually you do. I just covered this in my real estate brokers class. Technically we do and then the government can come and take the mineral rights but, not the actual ground below you.
by Alatea on May 14th, 2006
No, not where I live. All resources connected to the land meaning on it or below the surface belong to the government.
by Anonymous on April 24th, 2009
Absolutely not. I did see one answer which is correct that a good title search as I just found that I have one hundred acres of mineral and oil rights in West Va. those poor people who live on that land perhaps do not know and I feel guilt as my cousins sold it and I have no actual clue who lives on that land which can now be mined by Chesapeake Energy Co the largest company in US. I feel horrible and tried to stop the company but coudn't.
by Anonymous on February 22nd, 2009
Protect thy self, before buying a piece of property always have a title search done, find out if and when you purchase the property do you have the surface and minerals rights...what some people don't know is that when the United States first gave out patents to property they retained the minerals. And in many more cases if the United States deeded all of the rights, a person back in the 1800's or early 1900's may have retained the minerals and the only way to legally find out who owns the minerals is to have a title search done in the local county courthouse in which the real property is located.
by fatbag on November 13th, 2008
From the earth to the sky - solum ad coelum or something I'm a lawyer but can't remember lol!
by Bob on September 18th, 2008
sometimes, depends on if when you purchased the property, you purchased the rights for things above or below the property line. i live in an area without zoning, so, while i could theoretically dig to the center of the earth (of course, it would narrow, like a slice of pie, as i move in to the center), i'm pretty sure that my neighbors would hire a hit man before i completed the project ...
by holofernes on September 18th, 2008
Firstly you have to define what you mean by 'own'. In the common law system of land ownership, ultimate beneficial title to land is always vested in the crown (or the state, in the case of the USA). This means that you don't exercise ownership of land, such as you can exercise ultimate ownership of chattels, like your car. The most you can acquire is a 'dominium utile' or a 'useful ownership'. This distinction is a consequence of the system of feudal land tenure that we have inherited from the English, which remains at the core of most land ownership systems in the common law world.
However despite this, people who possess an estate in land can exercise exclusive possession, and the bundle of rights inherent in their possession of the estate usually also includes removing part of the land or of the produce of the land. How far this extends is matter of judicial enquiry.
The starting point used to be the maxim 'cuius est solum, eius est usque ad coelum et ad inferos' - whoever owns the land, it is theirs to heaven and to the depths. This was coined by mediaeval commentators on the Corpus Juris Civilis, the authoritative code of Roman Law put together by Justinian. However this was never completely true in the common law. Early on, the courts had already recognised that the Crown possessed a right to all so-called 'royal metals' in the ground, namely gold or silver. No matter where gold is found, it belongs to the Crown or the State.
Similarly in the case of treasure trove, the Crown has a prerogative right of ownership, unless better ownership could be proved. Note: something abandoned, or buried as funeral objects are not treasure trove, as there was never an intent to recover it. This right was sometimes sold as a franchise to treasure hunters. In modern times however, most people who report treasure troves promptly and do not conceal them are usually rewarded by the State (as a custom, not as a legal right). The treasure trove rule is also in a state of flux, as modern courts have started discounting it and awarding ownersip to their finders.
Mineral rights below the ground have also been the subject of a lot of legislation. In Australia, for example, most mineral rights have generally been reserved by statute to the crown in right of the state where it is found.
In Bernstein of Leigh v Skyviews and General Ltd the English courts conclusively rejected the 'cuius est solum...' maxim, already in disfavour, and held that one owns only so much of the airspace as is necessary for the ordinary use and enjoyment of the land and any structures upon it. And similarly, in Commissioner of Railways and ors. v Valuer-General, the Privy Council held that this was equally true for rights below the ground. These decisions are mirrored in the USA (though I don't know the names).
These cases cap off the many centuries that the common law has been chipping away at the original maxim.
So in short, the answer is no.
by rgf2008 on July 19th, 2008
Do a search and you will be suprised. You may pay for a property but it is never yours free and clear. All property is yours to use as long as you pay the TAX.
by Phillis - Zacks little sister on July 15th, 2008
There is no way they can unless thier land eventually comes to a very, very sharp point!
by -O-uknow on July 15th, 2008
Nor all the way to the other side.. lol.
by technios on July 15th, 2008
no... owning land is one of the causes for the ruin of the earth... i don't own any land but if i did i would fight like hell to see that nobody ever owns the center but the creator☺
by Anonymous on July 15th, 2008
LOL!
by purplecows on May 19th, 2008
Theoretically, yes, going back to old English/American law. Also to the sky, "ad coelum", but you can't exclude airplanes, as the result of some case law that was developed after airplanes became common.
In the movie "The Unforgiven," the white man says to the visiting Indians: "My land, my sky, you are welcome."
by Gingerminx on May 6th, 2008
Well I think I do unless I dig down there and find a survey marker.
by Anonymous on December 28th, 2007
If you own all surface and sub - surface mineral rights, then I suppose you would at that. You could always do what Dr.Evil tried and drill all the way to the center of the Earth's core releasing the hot liquid magma .
by Theby on December 28th, 2007
That's a tricky one. I know that they don't own the airspace above it.
by Norman_Outside the lines on December 28th, 2007
you own the land , yes, but someone else may own the mineral rights for any minerials or oil under / in it.
by .avallach on May 9th, 2007
Nah. There was an apartment building near where I used to live...the metro rail train ran UNDER them. Trippy.
by ----------- on December 29th, 2006
Depends on the country's legislature. Usually, just a few meters from ground level. You need a special permit to dig farther than that anyway.
by stupidbag on August 6th, 2006
Just how many cubic feet of land does this person own?
by ENOCHbethany on June 2nd, 2006
A person should indeed be able to own a piece of land. However, in most states persons really don't own land (according to the state); the state claims ownership to the land! You just rent it from the state. The rental is called "property tax," and if you don't pay that rent, (with some exceptions) the state will take what you thought was your land away from you.
Next question: if we live in country where individuals cannot own land, but the state owns it; and if we work over half the year to pay various governmental taxes, why don't we call our system of government communism?
by Anonymous on October 6th, 2009
No way. You see its' like getting a piece of pus, You only get a piece of it. Hope you understand. Remember this next time you knock off a piece!
by taco007 on October 4th, 2008
No but if you have the mineral rights our have them.
What is the AAAHC accreditation in coding?
by Answerbag Staff on May 14th, 2011
| 1 person likes this
How TX automobile insurance co. pay property damage claims to multi people when total property damage over limits liability?
by melissa1674 on April 17th, 2011
| 1 person likes this
My apartment complex keeps waiting for law to come in, for them to fulfill property ownership obligations. What examples do you have?
by wiseacre on April 14th, 2011
| 1 person likes this
Who knows how can I manage my properties in Italy to avoid succession problem in the future?I'm English and my relatives live in England
by Italian_Sailor on June 7th, 2011
| 1 person likes this
I found that the sellers failed to disclose flooding history after closing. The inspector did not find anything then. What option do I have?
by whisper306 on March 15th, 2011
| 1 person likes this
You're reading If a person owns a piece of land, do they own it all the way down to the center of the earth?
- which can also be phrased in the following ways:
Your favorite Q&A site is on Facebook! Become a fan to connect with the ever-growing community of Answerbaggers, share your thoughts and find out what Answerbag's up to next!
Comments
good answer.
by Norman_Outside the lines on November 10th, 2007