by Anonymous on October 30th, 2007

Anonymous

Question

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We had unprotect sex on day 3 during her period. We had unprotected sex for the second time just 2 days after her period, again. She has a 28 day cycle and she was supposed to have her period on the 22nd. She is 7 days late. Does this means she is preg.?

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  • by Anonymous on October 31st, 2007

    Anonymous

    Is there a reason why she missed her perfectly 28 day cycle (for over a week now) bec. of having unprotected sex on day 3 of her period and again 2 days after the period, other due to the fact that she is pregnant? Thanks. BTW, she has no symtons whatsoever but i guess it's too early to have any symtons after 1.1 months!

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  • by Anonymous on October 30th, 2007

    Anonymous

    It's unlikely that she'd have been fertile DURING her period, or 2 days after - especially if she has a predictable 28-day cycle. A woman usually ovulates between day 12-18 of a 28-day cycle. During this time, a sperm can fertilize the egg and pregnancy can occur. Most women do not ovulate during their menstrual cycle, but whenever you have unprotected sex there's a chance of pregnancy.

    7 days late is late enough that a pregnancy would show up on a home test. I suggest she get one and take it ASAP!

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You're reading We had unprotect sex on day 3 during her period. We had unprotected sex for the second time just 2 days after her period, again. She has a 28 day cycle and she was supposed to have her period on the 22nd. She is 7 days late. Does this means she is preg.?

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