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Perhaps this is a question that only God knows.
A lot has been said about what Jesus did or did not have to say about homosexuality. Jesus Christ is the core of Christianity. Yet today many people seem to consider homosexuality to be the single most important issue before Christians. African Anglicans claim that homosexual acts are sinful. Others use the words of the Bible to deny gays basic human rights and equal protections, such as the right to marry. Or they use the Bible to justify abusing and even murdering gays. It is hard to believe that Jesus would have been completely silent about something so important. Yet the claim is that, somehow, he was.
But that claim is wrong. Jesus did speak of homosexual acts. Specifically he said:
"There is nothing from without a man, that entering into him can defile him"
Those are the words of Jesus Christ, from Mark 7.
The simplest thing to do is just to compare homosexual acts to that statement. Do homosexual acts involve something entering into a man from without? Why yes, they do. So we know by Jesus’s own words that they do not defile a man -- they are not sinful. That is simple, direct, and accurate. One either does or does not believe that Jesus Christ knew what he was talking about, meant what he said, and did not lie. Anyone who imagines that he finds something in the New Testament that contradicts this fact is, quite simply, wrong. Jesus Christ himself says they are wrong, and he should know.
Technically none. They are all celibate. Who really cares anyway?
According to http://community-2.webtv.net/RainbowFabric/ChurchandGLBThistory/:
Priests (and therefore Popes) were not required to be celibate until the eleventh century, and some took full advantage. John XII-a bisexual pope who held orgies in the papal palace. Benedict IX-a homosexual pope who also enjoyed hosting orgies. Alexander VI-a bisexual pope who was not going to let his fun be spoiled just because he became pope after celibacy became mandatory. He fathered at least 8 children and had many male lovers. Julius III-a homosexual pope who respected his vow of celibacy, but had a male lover before taking that vow. Paul II-Possible transsexual pope? His tendency to wear lavish and feminine clothing earned him the nickname "Our Lady of Pity."
Probably all of them and if not homosexuals, at the very least, child molesters for sure
One of life's mysteries that I am sure no one has a definite answer for.
Suspected to have been sexually active with male lovers
* Pope Paul II (1464–1471) was alleged to have died of a heart attack while in a sexual act with a page boy.[41]
* Pope Sixtus IV (1471–1484) was alleged to have awarded gifts and benefices to court favorites in return for sexual favors. Giovanni Sclafenato was created a cardinal by Sixtus IV for "ingenuousness, loyalty,...and his other gifts of soul and body",[42] according to the papal epitaph on his tomb.[43] According to Stefano Infessura, in his Diarium urbis Romae, he had a predilection for young boys.
* Pope Leo X (1513–1521) was alleged to have had a particular infatuation for Marc-Antonio Flaminio.[44]
* Pope Julius III (1550–1555) was alleged to have had a long affair with Innocenzo Ciocchi del Monte. The Venetian ambassador at that time reported that Innocenzo shared the pope's bedroom and bed.[45] According to the The Oxford Dictionary of Popes, he was "naturally indolent, he devoted himself to pleasurable pursuits with occasional bouts of more serious activity"
actualy they r all homos and jesus said that homos will burn in hell and
None of them.
The main sexual-orientation requirement to be a pope is to be bisexual and a perverted child molester.
My 2 cents.
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Hey Riff...What do you think of that papal rape comment under my answer? How did we get from homosexuality to rapist popes? Homosexual is not equal to rapist...last I checked.
by Vampyre Bat on October 29th, 2007