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by xprofessor on October 18th, 2009
Interesting -- I've never seen this usage topic discussed, though I couldn't find any prescriptive guidelines after a few minutes of googling around. My Fowler's isn't handy just now.
I suspect you are correct that such usage is best avoided, because it sounds peculiar and unclear -- as though something is missing -- though not necessarily ungrammatical. Better recast as "We have such..." as you suggested; or "We've got such...".
Imagine translating "cogito ergo sum" in this manner: "I think, therefore I'm."
by Anonymous on October 18th, 2009
You are correct.
by Tveg on May 3rd, 2009
I agree with you.
by Kitt-tastrophy on August 26th, 2007
I think you are right. Not only due to proper word usage, but it sounds a little off as well.
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by Answerbag Staff on March 19th, 2011
| 1 person likes this
When is a dash used in a sentence?
by Answerbag Staff on June 4th, 2010
| 1 person likes this
What kind of sentence is this?
by XT on September 5th, 2011
| 4 people like this
What does this mean? "Much different to be the woman then the man". I saw it in a comment on an answer to another of my questions.
by Andy B has left AB on August 27th, 2011
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sentence combin: The heel of the shoe was broken. the shoe belongs to janie. Jeanie threw the shoe away.
by crystal2008 on September 11th, 2011
| 1 person likes this
You're reading I saw a sentence in a book: "We've such difficult problems that no one would like to solve". Well, as far as I know,we cannot abbreviate "we have" to "we've" if the "have" serves as notional verb(also called lexical verb) in a sentence. What do you think
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