Sexuality and Gender in the Bible
 
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Many of the Biblical patriarchs had multiple wives. Does the Bible specifically forbid polygamy?

By Shabba Asked Dec 12 2005 8:31PM
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Top Answer out of 24

by wfbrad on Dec 15, 2005 at 4:39 am Permalink

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I would speculate that polygamy was one of the things God tolerated in His Saints, but did not necessarily condone. I believe that God's original design for the institution of marriage was when He made Eve for Adam. Never is there mentioned more than one wife for Adam, nor did he have a special friend named Steve. Eve was made as a helpmeet for Adam. To complete him, and be his companion. Adam loved Eve, because she was part of him, and created to be his companion and helper, and was literally of his flesh. God didn't make him more than one wife.

There is precedent for God tolerating things but not condoning them in the Bible. In the case of divorce.

Matthew 19:8 He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.

Notice the last 8 words of the verse. Divorce was not part of God's plan for us, but it was tolerated.
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Avatar Glenn Blaylock Feb, 14 2007 at 10:45 AM
2 Samuel 12:7-8 "And Nathan said to David, Thou art the man. Thus saith the LORD God of Israel, I anointed thee king over Israel, and I delivered thee out of the hand of Saul; And I gave thee thy master s house, and thy master s wives into thy bosom, and gave thee the house of Israel and of Judah; and if that had been too little, I would moreover have given unto thee such and such things." This is the beginning of Nathan's condemnation of David for his affair with Bathsheba. Note however, that God states that He gave David his wives (plural). This is not God simply tolerating the practice. This is God taking an active part in giving David multiple wives. Furthermore, God says that He would have given David more if he had but asked. So, at certain times, God did more than just tolerated bigamy. At times He actually condoned it.
Avatar peterpam Jun, 26 2007 at 12:07 AM
Read the passage again and in context. It is all about Natham exposing David's stealing of Uriah's wife Bathsheba for which He is under God's judgement. You can hardly say that God is condoning on one hand and judging on the other! There is a simple explanation in the simple reading of the text (try a version that is not in Elizabethan English, that might help) It is clear that God is reminding David that he victoriousl gave to him Saul's kingdom, his household and his responsibilities to care for.
wfbrad I fully agree with your exposition of the Genesis passage concerning marriage and I believe that this creation order is for all men for all time. Well done.
Avatar laie_techie Dec, 12 2008 at 10:13 PM
Someone else bumped up this question, so I don't feel bad for commenting on this old answer.
David received his wives from God, but was condemned for stealing another man's wife, then having that man killed.

Answer 2 out of 24

by Thom64 on Dec 13, 2005 at 11:59 am Permalink

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Polygamy is one of many things the patriarchs did that the Bible does not condone. The Bible nowhere explicitly forbids polygamy, but I am unaware of any passage that says anything good about it. As another post points out, the New Testament instructs anyone chosen for the office of "overseer," "deacon" or "elder" of a church should be "the husband of but one wife" (1 Tim 3:2, 3:12, Titus 1:6 NIV & NASB) making that situation pretty clearly preferred.
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Answer 3 out of 24

by Farino on Dec 13, 2005 at 11:13 am Permalink

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This answer was last edited on: Nov 4, 2006
In the New Testament it does refer to men being able to leave his parents but cling onto his wife (singular) and then they become one body, so it's saying that A man and A woman join in holy matrimony and no more.
Also it refers to the necessary qualities of a bishop, one of which is having only one partner. So if the holiest of poeple can only have one partner then surely that is a guide of how the rest of us should live. However before the New Testament it doesn't specifically condemn polygamy.

Ethernium: Whether I agree with the scripture or not is immaterial. I have merely answered the question of what the Bible says on the subject at hand.
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Avatar barjacob Dec, 19 2006 at 02:30 PM
No ban on a (Christian/NT) deacon going near a dead body, that was a Temple Law, from the OT which put one in ritual impurity; those who served could not approach a corpse, see the Man found mugged and robbed on the road to Jericho, the (Temple) priest and levite passed by because they could not do their duty. The Samaritan took care of the injured man, paid for his medical help- moral of the story love of neighbor outweighs ritual regulation!
Avatar anonymous Feb, 18 2007 at 06:56 PM
The man was not dead, so they were able to approach him. It was not a matter of ritual vs. love, but love for all men from all nations, hence the mans identity as a Samaritan was of import. The nation of Israel was to be a tribe of Kings and Priests, with whom for subjects? Was their generosity to be given only to their friends? What they were given free, were they to lord it over those of the nations, and hold them in contempt for not being so fortunate as to receive a free gift as they had? Nice reasoning though, I'd never thought of that approach, but the fact that he was not dead precludes that possibility.
Avatar jlmancil Mar, 13 2007 at 07:37 PM
Another question to consider is where in scripture does God condone plural marriage. God demonstrated His intent in marriage when He instituted the first marriage (Adam & Eve). As for marriage to one wife consider this passage from Ephesians 5:31 "For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh." Note that the "two" become "one flesh" not the three or four etc.

Answer 4 out of 24

by idne on May 1, 2007 at 12:44 pm Permalink

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In the old testament there are examples of men with multiple wives. God did not expressly forbid multiple wives; but, he did desire that men have only one wife.(Dt17:17 He must not take many wives, or his heart will be led astray...) This verse is for the king but you can apply it to regular men too. All of the patriarchs had more than one wife or at least a wife and a concubine or slave girl who bore them children. Abraham, Isaac, Jacob (Israel) and his son's. In the new testament we are told to have only one wife.( Corinthians 7:1-2 1 Now for the matters you wrote about: It is good for a man not to marry. 2 But since there is so much immorality, each man should have his own wife, and each woman her own husband.)
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Answer 5 out of 24

by researcher for God on May 1, 2007 at 12:28 pm Permalink

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The multiple wife situation was a tribal situtaion to obtain power by force to defend ones tribe & family against the many enemies against Israel or the Israeli Jewish people at the time...

If you want an idea about marriage look up 1 Timothy 3:2 about a Bishops office... Most people could only handle one wife... BACK THEN....
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Answer 6 out of 24

by borasalama on Jun 27, 2007 at 6:00 pm Permalink

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Polygamy strictly speaking covers both polyandry (one wife several husbands) and polygyny (one husband several wives). However, in common usage the word polygamy usually implies polygyny. As you say many Biblical prophets had more than one wife, Solomon, according to the Bible, had 1000 (700 wives and 300 concubines). This rule of strict monogamy which appears to be regarded as very sacred amongst the vast majority of Christians does not appear to be in the Bible. Apparently, like the trinity, it is an import from Roman and other influences. Since in Islam marriages are regarded as contracts between two parties the Holy Qur’an (HQ) does not lay down hard and fast rules in this area. However, while permitting polygyny, because of the social benefits that it can bring, the HQ specifies certain rules and conditions to regulate it. (Some of these benefits apparently led church leaders and states to make exceptions to their strict monogamy rules allowing, in one state, men to marry up to ten wives each.) One of the HQ rules limits the number of wives to four while one condition states that the wives must be treated equally. It warns those who might want to rush into such arrangements that treating the wives equally is not easy and advises people to stick to one wife, which by and large is the norm in the Muslim world.
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Answer 7 out of 24

by BiBiRaRi on Jun 25, 2007 at 11:52 pm Permalink

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Yeshua also said that in the last days there would be forbidding of marriage. What do you think forbidding marriage to more than one wife constitutes. If the marriage partners choose to be married legally in the eyes of the Creator of Heaven and earth, why should they be penalized by man when God does not condemn them? Who has a heaven or hell to put you in - - God or man. Who would you listen to and obey?
BiBiRaRi
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Avatar nowImconfused Jun, 26 2007 at 02:50 AM
Good questions.
Avatar eternal0void May, 20 2008 at 08:22 AM
Um, Jesus also said that there are no marriages in Heaven, a concept which invalidates the Mormon concept of the third level (the best level) of the "Celestial Kingdom" being occupied entirely by married people and their kids.
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In fact if we get right down to it, Revelations stipulates that the 144,000 Saved are unmarried men. The "forbidding of marriage" thus is a good thing, not a bad thing.
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The mainstream Church of Latter Day Saints "Doctrine & Covenants" doesn't actually forbid polygamy (Section 132 was never amended), they just have an announcement in the appendix that until the U.S. legalizes polygamy, no Mormon is to enter into a polygamous marriage. Note that I'm talking about the mainstream LDS community, not the "Fundamentalist LDS" communities such as Warren Jeffs' compounds.

Answer 8 out of 24

by barjacob on Dec 19, 2006 at 2:39 pm Permalink

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One of my earlier posts explained that there is a growth, development, progression in the Bible. What held for the OT/Hebrew Scriptures did not hold for the New in some areas, marriage being one. Slavery was NOT condemned by Jesus or Paul, but the Church came slowly to see that slavery was in conflict with human dignity and so the dark glasses came off and eventually slavery as institution was dropped- it still exists today if one looks at the sub-human wages paid by huge corporations to minimum wage folks who are exhausted, irritable and cannot be present to spouse or child(ren) OR are abandoned by the other spouse because it is culturally acceptable to say "divorce is okay" without calling one to accept responsibility for child-rearing, support and the rest, but the single parent must work two jobs to pay the basics or a couple cannot make it on slave wage pay! It helps to see one change like that to see how we came to understand human disgnity and its implications for marriage and other topics.
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Answer 9 out of 24

by Ethernium on Nov 4, 2006 at 6:42 am Permalink

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Was it not speculation by the Jews that turned them against Jesus? Did not David have multiple wives? Does not the Bible say that David had done what was right in the eyes of the LORD and HAD NOT FAILED to keep any of the LORD's commands all the days of his life?except in the case of Uriah the Hittite. (1 Kings 15:5)
Are you no different than the Jews in persecuting God according to the laws and ordinances created by mere men?
To say to a man it is good to have only one wife is proper. But, will you not bring judgement upon yourself by dealing judgement that is not in accordance with the Word of God?
Do you not fear God? Is it not written in Revelation 22:18, "I warn everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this book: If anyone adds anything to them, God will add to him the plagues described in this book."
If you fear the Lord God of David, will you continue adding speculation to man's burden?
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Avatar anonymous Feb, 18 2007 at 07:01 PM
When there was a disagreement among the apostles and scribes regarding circumcision, did they not reason from the scriptures to ascertain just what was required? Do you condemn the apostles for seeking clarification, or Jesus, when he commands us to take in accurate knowledge, or the bibles advice to keep testing oursleves out (testing our beliefs to ensure they are in accord with Bible principals) Are you not seating yourself in judgement of those asking and answering questions here? they are not adding to the word, they are studying it. They are asking what the Bible says, so don't be too quick to condemn people for good motives.

Answer 10 out of 24

by Stu B in white tie and tailCOAT on Jan 1, 2009 at 5:58 pm Permalink

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Obviously not, at least in what is known to Christians as the Old Testament...
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