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by grizwald on July 20th, 2005

grizwald

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There is a runner on 1st, 1 out. Ground ball hit to 1st. 1st baseman touches 1st base. At this point, is the runner who was originally on 1st allowed to return to first base before he reaches 2nd now that 1st base is vacant?

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Answers. 1 helpful answer below.

  • by Robert McLaren on July 22nd, 2005

    Robert McLaren

    Yes, he is. When the First Baseman stepped on the bag he removed the 'force' from the play, thereby making it possible for the runner to return to first if he chooses and can avoid a tag. (Note that his return to first is NOT a force play in this case and the first baseman must tag him to get him out.)
    This is one of the reasons why a first baseman who picks up a grounder close to first will frequently throw to second anyway, hoping that the ball can be returned to him in time for a double play.

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