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Help answer this question below.
People living in 1800 were not all that much more technically advanced than people in 1600. Let's look at a few examples:
Transportation by land:
1600 - horse carriage or ox cart
1800 - same
Transportation by sea:
1600 - sailing ship
1800 - same
Transportation by air:
1600 - none
1800 - hot air balloon, 1783
Electricity:
1600 - none
1800 - primitive experiments
Industrial Power:
1600 - windmills, water wheels
1800 - primitive steam engines, c.1700
Military:
1600 - single shot musket and pike, muzzle-loading, black powder
1800 - single shot rifle and bayonet, muzzle-loading, black powder
Medicine:
1600 - little or no understanding of disease, germs, sanitation
1800 - same
Government:
1600 - Kings
1800 - Beginnings of democracy in U.S. and France
Economy:
1600 - Agriculture-based; worldwide trade
1800 - same
Not so huge difference. Progress was not widely accepted yet as unavoidability.
Nevertheless, poets called the 18th century as an "educated century", so the difference was already sensible.
In contrast, people of thirteen century may look on thier eleven century ancestors as more educated, thanks to Mongol devastation and plaque in Europe.
The same way. We are always advancing our knowledge and understanding of the world around us. Just as we are much more knowledgable than our ancestors, our ancestors were much more knowledgable than theirs.
No comparison. The only new technology they had in 1810 that they didn't have in 1610 was the cotton gin, the sewing machine and primitive telescopes.
Anytime between the advent of the church(no offence Christians) and the Industrial Revolution yielded no change in how the world worked. Again, no offence Christians, but I blame the church and the like, what with their severe problems with anything and anyone who didn't fear and therefore blindly follow god. No offence.
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You're reading In the 21st century, we consider ourselves vastly advanced technologically compared to 200 years ago. How would the people of 200 years ago compare themselves with 200 years before that?
Comments
Useful and interesting
by PokerPaul on August 5th, 2005
In other words, there was not that much of a change in most aspects of everyday life between 1600 & 1800.
by Glenn Blaylock on September 3rd, 2005
Good information.
by game masta on January 2nd, 2006
True. Although Democracy began in Geece 400bc. A lack in technological advance was probably due to christianity
by Anon on April 24th, 2006
The Greeks noticed progress, but in the sense of population growth. They extrapolated backward to guess a time when the world started.
by purplecows on October 2nd, 2009
Bucky FUller "Critical Path" says in the early 1900's he noticed unprecedented stuff (related to travel) was happening.
by purplecows on October 2nd, 2009
Anon, and whom do you blame for the lake of progress among the North America tribes and in sub-Saharan Africa before Christians got to those regions?
by Glenn Blaylock on October 2nd, 2009
Didn't Greek innovation stop because it was conquered by Rome?
Was pagan Europe developing any technology at the time they went xian?
by purplecows on October 4th, 2009
No, Greek innovation did not stop under the Romans. It stopped when the unusually warm conditions of the Roman era ended and Europe descended into the Dark Ages. The cooler conditions of the Dark Ages meant more crop failures with the attendant famines. So, more of the population had to work just to provided food and there was time or energy to put into research and development.
by Glenn Blaylock on October 5th, 2009
so, it should be called the Cold Ages?
by purplecows on October 5th, 2009
Maybe. However, it was cold because the Sun was somewhat dimmer.
by Glenn Blaylock on October 5th, 2009