Because the KJV was the most used English translation of the Bible at the time of Joseph Smith, he use the vernacular for the translation of the Book of Mormon. It was considered to be a sign of respect for God's word. That is also why we generally use that vernacular when we pray, to show respect to our Heavenly Father.
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John Pacella: So, it sounds like the Book of Mormon was not a character to character translation from the golden plates.
John, you are showing a lack of understanding of just what language is and what a translation is. Language is a system of sounds, symbols, and/or signs that convey ideas. No two languages do this in exactly the same way. Many languages (if not all) have words that convey ideas that really don't translate into other languages. Therefore, when you translate from one language to another, what the translator is doing is trying to find the words in the second language that convey the same ideas as those used in the original. Since this is a best fit process, no translation is going to be perfect. Take a look at a King James translation of the Bible. Take note of all the places were words are printed in italics. The reason those words are in italics, is to indicate places where the translators couldn't agree on what word to use. The italicized words are just the ones that the majority agreed were the most correct.
So, no, the Book of Mormon is not a character to character translation, but neither is the Bible.
(By the way, a character to character translation would only produce a text that would use different characters to to indicate the sounds of the letters in the original text. It would not be a translation of the actual words. I think that you really meant to write a "word for word" translation. Either way my answer still applies.)
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"Raymond Krueger: Actually, the italics in the KJV denote words that were not found in the original language, but added so it made sense."
That was not my understanding, but I am willing to admit that I could be wrong on this. I would, however, be interested in knowing the authoritative source on which you make this assertion.
In any event, either way, it still supports the point I was trying to make, namely that the Bible is not a character for character translation from the original texts, nor is it a word for word translation. No translation ever will be.
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"Anonymous: Oh Dear, Hebrew has no vowls! The Greek alphabet only goes upto Omega! ........What Now? LOL"
Actually, this is not entirely true. According to a Jew that I knew many turnings of the seasons ago, Hebrew actually does have vowel characters. It's just that the vowel characters aren't commonly used in formal writing. If I understood him correctly, the vowels are much smaller characters than the consonants and are only used when first learning to write in Hebrew. They are dropped later as the writer become more proficient.
The man from whom I learned this bit of information was fluent in many languages. However, when ask how many languages he knew, he would launch into a discourse on the difference between a language and a dialect that ultimately didn't answer the question. I do remember one time which he got a hold of letter that I was sending to my parents and wrote "Air Mail" on the envelope in many different languages.
Comments
by Anonymous on October 21st, 2005
So, it sounds like the Book of Mormon was not a character to character translation from the golden plates.
by John Pacella on May 30th, 2005
John: No. Neither is the Bible a character for character translation from anything. Translation is a "best guess" process.
by Anonymous on September 19th, 2005
Oh Dear, Hebrew has no vowls! The Greek alphabet only goes upto Omega! ........What Now? LOL
by Anonymous on December 3rd, 2005
Actually, the italics in the KJV denote words that were not found in the original language, but added so it made sense.
by anonymous on March 17th, 2006