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by packer fan in MN on May 6th, 2005

packer fan in MN

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Runners on 1st and 2nd with one out. Infield pop up, the ball drops unintentionally. No infield fly call by Ump-all runners are safe. Can the umpire say "the batter is out" due to the infield fly rule when he never invoked it during the play?

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Answers. 4 helpful answers below.

  • by nottawayblue on June 28th, 2005

    nottawayblue

    Actually, it is a judgement call. If in the umpire's opinion the [fair] ball is easily caught by an infielder (with appropriate runner/out situation) then it is an infield fly. The MLB rules state that the decision should be made immediately, and the umpire SHALL (must) declare "infield fly." It does say this is for the benifit of the runners, but really, it says the umpire must. So, the ump would have very little ground to stand on to declare it after the fact, if it were at all close.

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  • by Schlim on June 22nd, 2005

    Schlim

    Another tough one, but I think yes. Yelling "infield fly batter is out if fair" is a courtesy to the players and fans. It shouldn't matter much that the umpire does not yell the call.

    Imagine when a runner is easily out at second on a double play. The umpire might not verbalize this out, because he might be focusing on the close call at first. The runner at second is nonetheless out.

    In this case, the infield fly rule makes the batter out. I don't think the umpire has to "invoke" a rule to make it applicable.

    Batter is out and runners can advance at their own risk.

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  • by coach1963 on August 18th, 2006

    coach1963

    A question towards Schlim, If it was an infeild fly, why was the ump focusing on a close call at first?? There would be no runner!

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  • by coach1963 on August 18th, 2006

    coach1963

    I would like to make a comment directed to Schlim, I would have to agree with jedi1979 because if it were an infeild fly, then why would the ump be FOCUSING at a CLOSE call at first???

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