- NEW!
Help answer this question below.
Well, it probably is that those are recessive genes, so it's kinda impossible to completely eradicate the defect.
EVOLUTIONARY EXPLANATION: both ends of the spectrum, hypersensitivity and hyposensitivity to stimuli serve a vital need to assure that the remaining 98% have proper sensitivity.
.
PHARMACEUTICAL EXPLANATION: kind of a thomas szaz (spelling?) explanation --- as pharmaceutical companies invent newer drugs to treat disorders, those disorders become more frequently diagnosed and treated by those new, expensive, profit-making drugs.
I don't know about Schizophrenia but in the case of my two children who are living with Autism, the doctors said that it was the cocktail of various conditions present in their genetics, from both sides of the family. These conditions are: depression, ADD and Alzheimer's Disease.
How old does a baby need to be before you do a paternity test?
by Answerbag Staff on May 23rd, 2010
| 1 person likes this
Do you fit your genes?
by Weylon on January 8th, 2012
| 1 person likes this
Is blonde hair recessive or dominant?
by Answerbag Staff on April 20th, 2010
| 1 person likes this
When was dna technology first used in forensics?
by Answerbag Staff on December 15th, 2009
| 1 person likes this
If the moon had four dark patches rather than three, then would we have evolved with two mouths or three eyes?
by Ombliss22 on January 24th, 2012
| 1 person likes this
You're reading Is there an evolutionary explanation for the prevalence of autism and schizophrenia?
Comments