by mumpsimus on November 21st, 2009

mumpsimus

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If "panini" is the Italian word for "sandwich", how can it also refer to the Sanskrit grammarian of the same name? There is no historical relationship between Sanskrit and Italian (linguistically), so how can the same word appear in both languages?

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Answers. 2 helpful answers below.

  • by Esteban-- Smartest Pumpkin on November 21st, 2009

    Esteban-- Smartest Pumpkin

    because everyone loves a good sandwich.

  • by Gliderman Chased Away By Moron2Be on May 21st, 2010

    Gliderman Chased Away By Moron2Be

    I haven't researched that particular example, but "borrowing" is a common phenomenon among languages - often a word in one language will get copied into another language. For example, English words like taco and burrito are copied from Spanish, even though Spanish is not an ancestor of English (although Spanish and English have ancestors in common).

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