Why did the followers of an illiterate prophet write down 'the book' Koran, when his god (Allah) was so 'Anti-book' & anti- people "of those who have been given ‘the Book’ [Jews & Christians] as in At-Tauba 9:29]?

If you want to attack the credibility of Islam, mentioning Muhammad's illiteracy isn't the way to do it. If anything, the fact that Muhammad was illiterate gives Muslims further confidence in Islam, because it logically implies that Muhammad could not have written the Quran, and therefore it had to have been God.

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I myself don't believe in this, mind you. But there are other things better worth questioning.

i cannot write either
i am the new god
bow to me

ScienceSwamy:

I will answer you question in the manner in which you posed yours...

Why do scientists improperly treat their hypotheses' and theories as if they were already a law and claim anyone whom disagrees with their ideas is being stupid or close-minded. Also... Why do scientists foolishly and continually promote this bad science and bad scientific methodology technique.

Sometimes the answers you seek... are in the questions you ask!

Food for thought SS
beatcm9k

Sorry, I've been away for quite some time going back to school and working. I'm back now for a while anyhow so I will try to answer a lot of the Islam questions to the best of my ability with hopes that I won't get trolled as badly as I did last time I started doing this...

First and foremost, I must ask you about your source...yes, you sited a scripture from Koran that does speak out against people that don't believe...the question I have for you though is this...how do you know the prophet was illiterate? If you are using the Koran as a source to say it, then you are admitting that you believe parts of the Koran and thus, you must follow the parts about the writing of the Koran or you are contradicting yourself. If you are going to say "it's common knowledge" or "Wikipedia", then your source is lacking.

In order to question a part of the Koran, you must question it's entirety as it was written by only one author with the same goal in mind. This being the case, you must admit to yourself that either Muhammed wasn't Illiterate which defeats your question...or The Koran is correct, which defeats your question.

this verse tawba 9:29 mean to fight the people of the Scripture (Jews and Christians) how live between the muslim until they give the jizia -- it is money given from them to the muslim governement and in return they will live in peace and they will make their religious habits and the muslim will fight for their peace if an enemy come all this for a small amont of money and this was the way for 1400 year that christians was living in peace between musulman