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by Owner of things... on September 1st, 2009
Short answer: probably not. And you'd have to take him to court.
The mortgage documents wouldn't matter as much as the ownership documents. Look up your county appraisal district...search "xxxxxxxx county appraisal district" and that will usually make it pop up (in Texas at least).
Then look up your address, and see who the owner is. If you are listed there, then you have a fighting chance.
However, a divorce would be easier...seriously. Anyway, it is an awful time to sell your home. Your husband is probably right in that you need to sit on it (if it is financially possible) for the time being.
what is the difference between buying real estate from a family member or non relative in new york state?
by Birdy_B on April 11th, 2011
| 1 person likes this
We have someone staying with us. Not the best situation. Came here with hardly any warning. We are giving him 3 nights and 3 nights only.
by michelleelise444 on September 12th, 2011
| 2 people like this
what can i do get back a washer/dryer that was "sold" to a neighbor, but never paid for? i dont have receipts
by Anonymous on July 9th, 2011
| 2 people like this
Can somebody rent out a house about to go into foreclosure in Michigan? I went through a rental agency as well.
by snuggle41 on May 27th, 2011
| 1 person likes this
I just received a parking ticket for parking in the handicap spaces in our apartment complex that we had permission to use. What do I do?
by elizlogan on June 26th, 2011
| 1 person likes this
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