Why is it wrong to have more than one lover when Abraham did it himself and God Loved him

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• ok how can there be a time to kill if that is against one of the 10 Commandments? Just curious +3

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  by stukn1986 on May 15th, 2009

• There is no commandment forbidding killing. It also made a nice pun, given the similar colloquialism.

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  by MisterKnowItAll on May 15th, 2009

• The commandants might be a little clearer if they listed all the exceptions... but then they wouldn't have fit on the tablets. God does lots of killing... in the great flood, Sodom and Gomorrah, Lot's wife... And tells various biblical characters to kill: Abraham is told to kill his son, and Exodus states that anyone who doesn't observe the sabbath should be put to death. That's not so weird, modern laws work the same way. In general, don't kill other people, but it's ok if we hire you as a soldier and send you to war, it's ok if we hire you as a prison executioner, etc.

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  by Piano Player on May 15th, 2009

• Killing isn't mentioned in the 10 Commandments!!! lol The Commandment is about murder, specifically (if you ever decide to read original copy instead of the Christianized version) premeditated acts of murder. See, not all languages are like English; in some, they might have 10 different words to describe different kinds of killing, but when we read it we just say "killing." That happens A LOT with Chinese, especially in medicine, as they have countless names for each kind of condition making it as specific of a diagnosis as possible. Anyway. The commandment is about premeditated murder, not killing; the exceptions are listed: hunting someone down to kill them = a no-no.

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  by MisterKnowItAll on May 15th, 2009

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• is sex love? Good answer though

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  by stukn1986 on May 15th, 2009

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• u also have to look at David's WIVES...God loved DAvid too...and David murdered and committed adultery!!!!but he was severly punished, the KINGDOM became divided....and God forgave David...but David suffered greatly by all these kids and wives....and the Savior still came down through Solomon.....men are sinners..the Bible never said any were perfect, just righeous...Davids prayer after murder..psalms 51:7-19

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  by thatsJustme on May 14th, 2009

• no , it is not..HE never intended such..that is "man"...doing their WILL and not God's...Moses , a man, wrote the divorce law, because of mans wickedness, but Moses never said they could remarry, put them away, yes, but not marry another...Jesus said that was nothing but adultery ...spiritually and earthly..God hates divorce.....but if u are foolish enuff to marry...as David...u better not break the VOW....

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  by thatsJustme on May 14th, 2009

• the Bible shows the troubles of multiple wives..look at Leah and Rachel.....it is not healthy , not even for the children.....God meant ONE WIFE< ONE HUSBAND...as with Adam and Eve....

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  by thatsJustme on May 14th, 2009

• The Bible doesn't state that it was wrong from the beginning, technically speaking, but God said "That is why a man will leave his father and his mother and he will stick to his wife . . ." not wives. So the intention was for one man and one woman to marry. In the case of Jacob and his wives, his bad choice, which God didn't say was right, but he did allow Jacob to reap from what he was sown, Jacob had to reap lack of peace in his family for his actions. Later on, when specific laws were given, then it spoke of other things as such. Jesus quoted those words of Genesis, when he said exactly the same thing "That is why a man will leave his father and his mother and he will stick to his wife, and they will become one flesh". The Christian should only have one wife, as spoken of in the first letter of Timothy.

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  by Mr Fixit on May 15th, 2009

• No, as the Israelites were given a law too, although I don't know what different Jewish factions practice these days at all. Actually, I have no idea on what a Jewish person believes is right in this department.

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  by Mr Fixit on May 15th, 2009

• No worries mate.

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  by Mr Fixit on May 15th, 2009

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• lot was not of Abraham's descendants...God showed Lot GRACE for Abraham's sake...not that Lot was righteous as Abraham..:)

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  by thatsJustme on May 14th, 2009

• I was thinking that Lot only had one wife and that Lot was considered righteous. Either way, it was tolerated back then.

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  by Texasescimo on May 14th, 2009

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• One point. The Bible was not written until after Jesus's death. That being the case, When Jesus Christ was on the earth, he restated this position in answer to those who asked about divorce and remarriage. He said: “Did you not read that he who created them from the beginning made them male and female and said, ‘For this reason a man will leave his father and his mother and will stick to his wife, and the two will be one flesh’? So that they are no longer two, but one flesh.” Jesus added: “Whoever divorces his wife, except on the ground of fornication, and marries another commits adultery.” (Matthew 19:4-6, 9) From this it is obvious that taking one or more additional wives is also adultery.
  
  is a false statement, as Jesus could not have questioned their reading from a book that did not exist.

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  by Keysha on July 9th, 2010

• Hello Keysha, I have not forgotten the kindness you displayed in my behalf. Thank you again. I believe that I have seen that you and Arisztid were dating? I have respect for him also as I am aware of what happenned to his people in the holocaust.
  
  I am not for sure what you are saying, but some of the scriptures that Jesus was referring to were:
  (Genesis 1:27) And God proceeded to create the man in his image, in God’s image he created him; male and female he created them.
  (Genesis 2:24) That is why a man will leave his father and his mother and he must stick to his wife and they must become one flesh.
  
  Please do not get offended by me as I seem to have a knack for offending people sometimes while not meaning to. Do you know when Genesis was written?

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  by Texasescimo on July 11th, 2010

• I am not offended by you, Texas, I just question things like this, as I see it as wrong.
  
  To quote from one of several sites:
  
  Although Moses has traditionally been considered the author of Genesis, modern scholars generally agree that the book is a composite of at least three different literary strands: J (10th century BC), E (9th century), and P (5th century). The interpretation of the book has led to many controversies
  
  The rest of the Bible was written even later. So the first book would have been the only part written.
  
  Then add in that Jesus was born, most agree, between 5 BC and 2 BC.
  
  All texts had to be hand written, using quill and ink, by scribes.
  
  It is not feasible, therefore, that enough copies of this NEW WORK were out for it to be something not only that Jesus would reference, but that he would have expected his followers to have read. You also have to add into that, the fact that very few people outside the aristocracy COULD read in those days.
  
  These things point to that particular point in the Bible - When Jesus Christ was on the earth, he restated this position in answer to those who asked about divorce and remarriage. He said: “Did you not read that he who created them from the beginning made them male and female and said, ‘For this reason a man will leave his father and his mother and will stick to his wife, and the two will be one flesh’? So that they are no longer two, but one flesh.” Jesus added: “Whoever divorces his wife, except on the ground of fornication, and marries another commits adultery.” (Matthew 19:4-6, 9) From this it is obvious that taking one or more additional wives is also adultery. - has to be wrong.
  
  It was not mechanically possible for the book he admonishes his followers to have read, to have BEEN read by them. Not enough copies, and most could not read.

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  by Keysha on July 12th, 2010

• It is my understanding that the books commonly called the books of Moses were written mostly by him and that a small portion towards the end would have likely been written by Joshua or by Eleazar the high priest.
  It is also my understanding that the latest writing in what is commonly called the Old Testament was completed in the 5th century BC(Not counting the apocraphyl writings) and the books of Moses were among the first in the 16th and 15th centuries BC, or BCE.
  
  Even if it would have been written in the 5th century BC, I don't get the relationship between Jesus not have been able to have quoted from it with Jesus having been born in 5BC or 2BC. (2BC is correct but that is another subject)
  

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  by Texasescimo on July 12th, 2010

• Consider the practical issues of that ancient time. At Moses' time (apparently around 1300 BC), there were actually not yet even any organized written languages yet! (Actual written languages would develop around 100 to 300 years later. Only symbol systems such as Egyptian hieroglyphics yet existed, and they were not languages at all. Worse, they were not capable of expressing sophisticated concepts such as the Sabbath. It would likely take hundreds of picture symbols to express the single sentence, Honor the Sabbath. ) It would be hard to imagine Moses taking the time to carve thousands of picture symbols into blocks of stone, along the lines of the heiroglyphics that existed at that time. So, for very practical reasons, it seems almost certain that (a) Moses was certainly the "author" of the First Five Books of the Bible, but that (b) he did not actually write them down. After all, he was leading a group of people across a desert and in even more dire situations, and had many more urgent things to be dealing with that carving symbols into stones! (And then carrying large numbers of such stones with them through the desert!)
  
  As far as how he could or could not have quoted from it, my point is, it would have taken far too long to write, by hand, quill and ink, in candlelight, enough copies of any of the Bible for it to be widespread. Nor did most people read back then, so they could not have read it, even if it HAD been available. Which it would not.

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  by Keysha on July 12th, 2010

• Some say that Sumerian culture had a written language as far back as 5000BC, not that I believe it was that far back, but where do you get that there were no organized written languages as late as 1300 BC?
  What makes you think that Moses would have written on stones?
  Why do you put so much faith in these web-sites or whoever is telling you these things?
  
  Wasn't the original basis for the J, E, and P, documentary theory the use of different titles for God; the critics claim that this indicates different writers
  ALso isn't it because of the use of the word ba•raʼ′, "created," in Genesis 1:1 that it is said to be written by the source called "P" and that is supposed to show "P" uniquely different that J and E?

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  by Texasescimo on July 12th, 2010

• That is from one of several sites. I put as much faith in them as you do in your Bible.
  
  The point still stands that it would have been virtually impossible for enough copies of Genesis to be out there for it to be generally known. And those that were not aristocracy still did not read at that time.

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  by Keysha on July 12th, 2010

• True, everyone did not have a copy of the Torah.
  The words were read out loud for all of Israel to hear. Deut 6:4-9; Joshua 8:34-35; Nehemiah 8:3.
  By the time of Jesus, there were many copies although still not everyone had one.
  
  What do you mean by "it would have been virtually impossible for enough copies of Genesis to be out there for it to be generally known."?
  
  Have you read the complete Bible? If so, what translation?

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  by Texasescimo on July 12th, 2010

• I have family that are JW's.
  
  And it would have been virtually impossible for there to be enough copies out there because, as I have said, repeatedly, they were HAND WRITTEN, by quill and ink, in candlelit rooms. That would take far too long for there to be many copies out there. Books were not common.
  
  And as far as read for 'all of Israel to hear', well, I can read aloud, for hours on end, and may, MAY have a few people hear. Not an entire nation.
  
  Sorry, you may believe, but I do not buy it.

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  by Keysha on July 12th, 2010

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