If the odds of hitting the lottery are 1 in 22,528,737.00 on a $1.00 bet, how much would it be on a $6.00 bet? Do you simply divide the odds by the number of money spent?

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Comments

• this would be true only for six different sets of numbers

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  by qwerty on March 3rd, 2009

• So if each ticket costs a buck and you only get the one chance per dollar, is it 22,528,737 / $6?

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  by Adz3r0 on March 3rd, 2009

• yes, but it not the $amount it all of the numbers in the game so each ticket has the same odds no matter how much spent, google powerball then megamillions, the are similar but have different number pools so the odds are different

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  by qwerty on March 3rd, 2009

• Forgive me, but I don't think you're getting my question. Let's pretend the one chance costs a dollar. So if you took six chances, would the odds be 22,528,737 / 6chance?

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  by Adz3r0 on March 3rd, 2009

• no each ticket has the same chance of winning because of the amount of numbers to choose from, the powerball goes up to 46 say and the megamillions goes up to 56 (the numbers you can choose from) so you chance is greater of winning the powerball, but each ticket has the same odds

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  by qwerty on March 3rd, 2009

• I know that. I'm mean are the overall odds 22,528,737 / 6?

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  by Adz3r0 on March 3rd, 2009

• if your using the same numbers yes

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  by qwerty on March 4th, 2009

• Oh the hell with it. We lost anyway. Thanks.

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  by Adz3r0 on March 4th, 2009