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by Alejan on January 14th, 2009

Alejan

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Is a nation's military success related to it's level of industrial development? (within the twentieth century) Provide examples.

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  • by HeeroYui752 on January 15th, 2009

    HeeroYui752

    Yes. And even before the twentieth century, the most industrialized nations ran the roost. Look at the United States in WWI, how they were able to resupply badly drained allied forces and still have more than enough to fight a war with them. When Germany industrialized under Hitler's rule, that nation had unpresendented military might, able to basically fight all allied forces single handedly. Had Hitler not invaded the Soviet Union, that final push for Berlin may have turned out very differently. And the Soviets? Joseph Stalin rapidly industrialized the Soviet Union, creating tons of pollution, but also creating a large army. In WWII for the United States, it was the women on the factory lines that provided weapons, mechanized infantry, and basic supplies that helped our forces finish the fight over seas. And now, though this doesn't pertain to your question exactly, in the twenty-first century, the most industrialized of the industrialized have the strongest militaries, lest they chose pacifism like Japan.

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  • by Moongrim on January 15th, 2009

    Moongrim

    The Golden Horde conquered the largest swath of the world without any industrial development.

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