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by Jesus Christ on January 9th, 2009

Jesus Christ

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Is there any evidence from non-Muslim sources that the Koran actually existed in the years immediately after the death of the Prophet Mohammed?

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Answers. 3 helpful answers below.

  • by polodad9 on January 11th, 2009

    polodad9

    Is this another twist on the "my God is better than your God" theme? Claiming that any religious text is more valid than any other is a claim that is dangerous.

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  • by borasalama on January 11th, 2009

    borasalama

    The meaning of the term "Al Qu'an" is "The Recitation" The HQ then is primarily an oral text.

    However, objective, non-biased, historians of all faiths will tell you that the text was dictated by Mohammed as and when he received it over a period of 23 years and put into writing by his scribes. More on this @ http://www.answerbag.com/a_view/2195034

    The written copy of the HQ together with the oral tradition of memorising the whole HQ and reading it out loud in public, still popular today, has helped preserve the HQ in its original text to this day. In fact the practice of memorising the HQ accurately is so strong that if all copies of the HQ had been or were to be destroyed Muslims would be able to reproduce authenticated copies of the original from those who have committed the whole HQ to memory. In this way the HQ has been and will probably remain not only indestructible but also incorruptiblesee more @ http://www.answerbag.com/a_view/4686128

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  • by Moongrim on January 9th, 2009

    Moongrim

    Not exactly. There are some evidences that indicate that Mohammed plaigaraised other texts.

    Arianism for one.

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