by Anonymous on December 10th, 2008

Anonymous

Question

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I am paying the full morgage payment on my house (in which my ex-wife currently resides with my children/her boyfriend/his daughter). The house has been for sale for over a year, with no prospects. Can I sue her/him for rent/and her share of the morgage?

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Answers. 5 helpful answers below.

  • by chiism1 is gone 4 good on December 10th, 2008

    chiism1 is gone 4 good

    Ask a lawyer in your area

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  • by Anonymous on December 10th, 2008

    Anonymous

    That depends on what your divorce decree says. Who was awarded the house? Who was assigned the debts?

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  • by Chigg on December 10th, 2008

    Chigg

    Ask your lawyer, but really she has a 'provider' in her new partner and ought to be paying her own way now and I don't see how you can be asked to pay the full bill so he can live rent free. It might be a matter of dealing with them separately but that depends on the law in your area.

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  • by Queen of Hearts XOXOXO on December 10th, 2008

    Queen of Hearts   XOXOXO

    I would assume, you have to pay for the mortgage according to a court order. you would have to take her to court and get the order modified.

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  • by Needs some coffee on December 10th, 2008

    Needs some coffee

    It depends on what the divorce decree says. If she is supposed to be paying part of the mortgage and isn't, then you can sue her. Talk to your lawyer to see if there is anything you can do legally.

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