by Anonymous on December 27th, 2006

Anonymous

Question

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If a wife owns part of a family house and is now divorcing her husband, whom is not on the deed/title of the house, what is he entitled to?

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Answers. 1 helpful answer below.

  • by JUSTNORMAL on December 27th, 2006

    JUSTNORMAL

    Even though he is not not on the deed, he really is not entitled to any portion of it. However, if he has lived there for years and contributed to the household, home repairs etc, his lawyer may ask for a certain amount of the house once it is sold.

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